For the sake of civility and to do my part for a constructive dialogue, I'll take back my calling BS. That was provocative.
I understand the seller's net remains the same either way. What I don't understand is, how you can create a credit and show a sales price to the bank that isn't the actual sales price. How is that not fraudulent? I understand that the credit can all be shown on the documents, but the fact that no money ($600k in this case) changed hands is where the problem is. I'm not accusing you, I'm trying to understand why a bank would allow it. I've heard of bank officers telling an investor to do similar practices to get underwriting approval, but I've always thought it was fraudulent whether or not a bank officer was involved.
Tax evasion is a serious offense that does get prosecuted. If there are closing documents that show a seller selling a property for $6.5M and there's a credit for $600k to the buyer because of a real prepayment of that amount, would the $600k be tax free because it was not part of the seller's net at closing?