Quote from @Jerel Ehlert:
To the poster talking about "urban legend", a few minutes with Google will get you as many citations as you desire. For instance, when I Googled "Texas specific performance" the search yielded these gems:
DiGiuseppe v. Lawler, TX (2008), https://caselaw.findlaw.com/court/tx-supreme-court/1398705.h...
Tex. Bus. & Com. Code Se. 2.716, https://casetext.com/statute/texas-codes/business-and-commer...
Specific Performance Versus Damages for Breach of Contract: An Economic Analysis, Shavell, Texas Law Review, Vol. 84, Num 4, March 2006, http://www.law.harvard.edu/faculty/shavell/pdf/Shavell-SpecP...
Anything more, you can request a consultation and pay the retainer.
Thank you for providing the information.
Before responding I would like to be sure we are having a meeting of the minds. My understanding of your opinion is that in Texas, a trial court may elect to award damages to a buyer/plaintiff rather than specific performance even though the buyer/Plaintiff has proven that all his obligations under the contract were performed to make the contract valid and enforceable. This result is even more likely if the buyer is a dealer:
“IN TEXAS, specific performance is frowned upon (read, unlikely) if monetary damages will make the prevailing party whole. Sale of real property is one of the few cases where it is likely to be awarded. But even here, if the buyer and seller are dealers ("flippers"), then money damages could be awarded.
My reading of the Lawler decision is that while the trial court found the Plaintiff had proven his case and did in fact award specific performance, the appeals court disagreed and found the buyer/plaintiff did not allege and did not prove he was ready willing and able to close (an essential element of seeking to enforce the contract) and therefore was not entitle to specific performance. The Texas Supreme Cout agreed with the appeals court decision. Unless I am missing something, this case does not support your opinion as I understand it.
Likewise, the statute you reference has no bearing on the issue.
Finally, the Introduction of the treatise states:
When would parties entering a contract want performance to be specifically required, and when would they prefer payment of money damages to be the remedy for breach? I study this fundamental question here and come to a conclusion based on a simple distinction between two types of contracts: contracts to produce new goods or to provide services;1 and contracts to convey existing goods or other property. Setting aside qualifications, the conclusion that I reach is that parties would tend to prefer the remedy of damages for breach of contracts to produce things, whereas they would often favor the remedy of specific performance for breach of contracts to convey property.
In footnote 3 the author noted:
3. A different and, for some purposes, a better statement of the conclusion is that parties will tend to want damages to be the remedy when the reason for breach is high cost (as could only be true for a contract to produce) and would tend to prefer specific performance to be the remedy when the reason for breach is sale to an outside party (as could be true either for a contract to produce or for a contract to convey).
Consequently, it appears this piece, while admittedly interesting, has nothing to do with what we are discussing.
I have not seen anything to date that indicates that a court would do anything other than order specific performance if the buyer has met his burden never mind considering whether the buyer intends to be an occupant of flip it.
Based on the work product produced so far, I doubt I will be retaining you anytime soon.
P.S. Before drafting my initial post I did Google (I love how that has become a verb) "Texas specific performance" and like you, found nothing to support my understanding of your position.