Thanks for the feedback guys. I'm still trying to really understand how this works.
This is how I'm currently thinking of this:
If there are different valuation methods for 4-unit properties depending on the loan type, this creates an issue for the seller.
From the seller's point of view for example, if his/her 4-unit property has an NOI of $1000/month and the cap rate in the area is 6%, then the property value would be calculated as $200K using the income. On the other hand, let's say the comps say it's only worth $130K? Or $300K? Now we have a big issue of valuation. Should the right approach be to average the two methods? Or add more weight to the comps valuation method?
Below is a more real example of where I'm running an valuation issue:
I am currently evaluating a 4-unit property where the bank I'm working with for an FHA loan valuates the property at $340K based on comps. The NOI for the property is $1600/month and using a cap rate of 6%, the estimate value based on income would be $320K. All good up to this point. However, the property rents are significantly under market value. After rehabbing a bit and getting new tenants (let's say it takes a year), the NOI is estimated to be $2100. Based on this new NOI, the property value based on income would be $420K. This would be a great way to add value to the property! However, if the banks will only use comps, then the value of the house would only stay at $340K no matter what the income is. That seems very limiting.
For 4-unit properties, will they forever be at the mercy of comps and never based on income? When is it applicable to get a commercial loan on a 4-unit versus a residential loan?