So here's the scenario (hope it's not too confusing):I'm purchasing a house that's scheduled to close tomorrow.

You may inherit a property from your grandmother, you will have "obtained" the property using none of your own money; however you would not have utilized nothing down 100% financing.Let's not confuse two different issues.

( Please look for the Sportsman's Lodge, and watch not to go to the Sportsman's Lodge Hotel, right next door, which often confuses folk.

I think the confusion lies in how someone defines "wholesaling."

Counter point: it's a good idea to put the commission in a rental agreement to ensure there's no confusion.

Sorry for the confusion.

Martin,I'm not sure, but I think you are confused.

It appears that the way that I phrased my original question caused some confusion as I meant to explain that we were simply interested in a rate & term refi to pay off the private money loan - NOT pull cash out.

My apologies if this seems confusing.

Found the forum through google, seems like a place I can learn from.I've been reading this forum forever, and find myself more confused than when I started.