As a matter of fact your transaction does technically meet the time period suggested by at least two court rulings where they attempted to describe an appropriate holding period as two tax years and two calendar years. 

Empirically speaking, it's not accurate to say the predicted ARVs are "inflated" (appraisals are used as just one input to estimating value).Raw data for each transaction is available in a public Google Sheet for investors to analyze.Visit https://blog.groundfloor.com/an-analysis-of-arv-es... for a link to the sheet and more details.

If you are looking for transactional funding for these types of deals I'd be happy to discuss.

Congratulations to you for the first transaction!

Before making the plunge, I highly advise you to consult with a cross-border tax & legal specialist to determine the best entity structure to use.

Trying to cross all T's and dot all i's as much as possible.

There is no sales or transaction. 3.

That scenario of what you are proposing is so outside of the realm of anything even remotely plausible that it would be best to just forget about it.That said, if a borrower is in default, and approaches a loan officer (why they would approach a loan officer instead of a realtor, is beyond me) and tells that loan officer they are in default, and that loan officer happens to know an investor that might happen to be in the market for a purchase of the defaulted borrower's property, and the numbers work out to where the transaction can go forward and everyone wins, and introduces that defaulted borrower to that investor, it would be great.

Do you close creative deals such as wrap-around-mortgages, or subject-to transactions?

Hi Nick, Generally speaking you can assume investment transaction interest rates will be a point higher than owner occupied interest rates.