Originally posted by @Greg H.:
Unfortunately the county cannot just offer the property to you but has to have an open auction
I am trying to understand how the parcels are separate and not on one deed ? The person that was foreclosed on had to have had a survey(FHA requirement) and the mortgage company would have wanted the security for the loan to all be on the same deed. Unless the other lot was purchased later and not part of the original purchase with FHA ? When the bank foreclosed, they surely would have used the metes and bounds legal description that was used in the purchase
Greg - If you look at the two attachments, you will see the paper trail. The properties were bought and sold together a few times, but the transfer of parcel 0490 from the ex husband and ex wife to the same man with a new wife was recorded 07/03/2002. The last transfer of parcel 0500 was a quit claim deed between an ex husband and wife, and the same man and his new wife. That is dated 3/5/2012. So it seems like it was an afterthought that the lot 0500 didn't get included in the original transfer with the new wife. There is no corresponding real estate transaction for the parcel 0490, which is the one we bought. There is also no corresponding transfer of 0500 to Bank of America nor HUD. The lot 0500 may not have ever been mortgaged with Bank of America. It could have been owned outright.
