Quote from @Carlos Ptriawan:
Yes it's 1:1 ... of course long term will be fine but that's not the point haha :) my point is I can have a much better return in my own personal broker account because I can do whatever I want, because I'm the money manager, it's that simple.
I'm having a wee bit of trouble following along with the logic. Maybe if I write it out a bit, I can see this more clearly.
If the 401k allows one to pick a target date fund, say VTTSX, there are three components to our gains: the annual yield (1.9%), the Fund gains (performance, ~7.68% yoy for the years it has been in existence) , and your match (100% per contribution from the get-go). There is also the expense ration (0.08%) in terms of cost. And the employer offers a 1:1 match. As long as one remains employed, the employer picks up the tab for the account services and all other fees involved. Perhaps the contribution is every payday and pay is based on a two-week interval, hence 26 pay periods. 401ks are taken out of paychecks as pretax deductions, so no taxes are involved until distributions are taken (presumably in retirement after 59-1/2). Let's pretend that the contribution is $100/paycheck. Simple gain % are usually calculated as Net Gain or Loss = G =((final value - initial value)/initial value) x 100.
So we hit GO and work for our company to start off the year. At the end of Year 1 [Y1 for short], we have contributed $2600 (Y1=pay periods x contribution amt). Our company has matched our contribution, so there's another $2600 from matching funds. Avoiding the complexity of per-paycheck compounding of gains, we can simplify with end-of-year math. This artificially depresses actual compounding, so my end results will likely be LOWER than real gains. Y1 Total is $5200 without any share appreciation or dividend reinvested gains applied. %Gain, Y1 = ((5200-2600)/2600)x100 = 100%. I'm not a greedy fellow -- for me, 100% gain for year 1 falls in the not bad category.
Ah, but Year 2 gets more complicated. Here, we can apply the yields we left off of Y1 to the Y1 total PLUS repeating the initial numbers of Y1 for Y2. Cool -- end of Y2 numbers translates into Y1 EndOfYear growth + Y1 EndOfYear Total + Year2 EndOfYear Total, or:
[Y1EOYgrowth=((Annual Yield + Average Performance - Expense Ratio)/100) x Y1] + [Y1EOYtotal] + [Y2EOYtotal]
and if we fill in the blanks, we get [(7.68+1.9-0.08)/100 x $5200] + [$5200] + [5200], or $494+$5200+$5200, or $10894.
We are out-of-paycheck $5200 over two years and we have $10894 to show for it. Plug THAT into our %Gain calculation, 109.5% gain. I think if we rinse/repeat this process another few years or better yet, decades as we remain employed at this job, we can predict the %gain will rise as all compounding tends to do. That's a lot of free money.
Sure, I made a whole lot of assumptions about the market (and the investor behavior to not try to time the market), but overall I am more likely to be right than wrong. Compare this to the $2600 invested on one's own per year. We first have to deal with after-tax dollars, so that's $2600 - taxes and minus M1's fees, low as they are.
https://finance.yahoo.com/quot...