Thank you for the fast reply @Bill Gulley ! So take for example a three unit property with an option price set at 100k. I would first find someone interested in purchasing the property for themselves, charge them an option payment of say 10k. Then they would either move into one unit and rent out the other two, or live elsewhere and rent all three out. Then he collects rent monthly from his tenants, pays me rent monthly, and somewhere down the line he cashes me out in full? And this whole time he is paying me just the monthly rent amount, with nothing above and beyond being credited towards his possible purchase, right?
Now at what point does the commercial loan come into play? I assume he would acquire one when he decides to exercise his option? Now, you said that with commercial loans you can finance the option price. When you say the option price, that would be like the 10k in my example, correct? If he had already paid me the 10k up front, how would that be rolled into his commercial loan months later? Or is the option price not paid up front but rather when the option is exercised?
Thanks for your awesome response by the way, please don't mind my technical questions but I just read up a little on sandwich leases after reading your post. The info is much appreciated!
Thanks again,
Mike