Hey guys,
Here's a deal that I'm looking at and need some advice on how best to proceed...
SFH $149K, comps show $170k
Seller is willing to take $65k (his equity) and have me assume the mortgage (84k, $650 / mo). He called the bank and they said it's not assumable (I haven't looked at his paperwork so just going off what they said). I have a very good friend that is willing to loan me the $65k for 12 months, the goal is to then refi and pay off both loans in that 12 months.
This is a home I'm going to live in, not flip, so it would be an owner occupy refi. I made the mistake of too many write offs with my business and can't currently qualify for the $149k.
Here's my main question: Is there a way to do a "seller finance" on this home legally, seeing as he is not in first position or would this be considered a wrap or subject to? As far as I know, most title companies won't close on this without approval of the bank that's in first position, at least Ticor won't. How would you proceed on this deal?