Wondering if this is common and what we should be wary of as the note holder...
- We originated a note on a property (in Brazil, IN; Clay County in case that matters). We went through a local title company for the closing. The mortgage note and deed are recorded. Our mortgage has a due on sale clause.
- Our borrower performed for a year before falling behind. They are currently about 8 months behind.
- Yesterday we received a call from a company that purchased the property from our borrower. The seller was calling to see about bringing the note current. We confirmed that they purchased the property through another title company and a deed in their name has been recorded.
- We contacted their title company and asked how they could issue a new deed without bringing the underlying mortgage note current, or notifying the mortgage holder that a transaction was taking place. The response from the lawyer was "We were retained to make a title transfer only, which we did, subject to all liens of record. Your lien remains in the same position as prior to the transfer and you still have all remedies available to you per your loan documents."
We're familiar with the subject to purchase strategy but have never come across a title company that would participate in the transaction. Is this common or appropriate for a title company?
The current 'owners' are a SFR rental company that appears to want to bring the note current. Assuming they do so within the next 2 weeks, we're inclined to let them keep operating under the existing mortgage and not exercise the due on sale clause. We do plan to sell the note once it's performing again. Any words of warning should we let them keep paying the note? Would it hamper our ability to sell the note?
Thanks in advance.