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Updated over 13 years ago on . Most recent reply
Need help analyzing this, please.
I refinanced House A to get $$ to buy House B. Total Loan amount was $375K, I owed $88K on House A and now have $287K to buy House B. Since House A is covering the entire new mortgage payment should I exclude any mortgage amount when doing my analysis for House B which I have not yet purchased? Or, should I include a percentage of the mortgage amount toward House B?
Any thoughts from experienced investors would be appreciated.
Most Popular Reply
Originally posted by Michael R.:
... If you buy a property for 400k with 1000k in rents it will cash flow negative. ...
Buy for 400k, and rent it for a MILLION, and you call that cashflow negative?!?!? :oops: :roll: