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Updated over 9 years ago on . Most recent reply
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WHo is responsible when Due on Sale is called?
Buyer purchases subject-to and bank calls sale. Is it the responsibility of the buyer to pay the balance of the mortgage or the seller? If the buyer can't pay, does it then become the sellers responsibility? Can the seller buy it back and continue with mortgage? If no one can pay it off, I assume it will be on the seller's credit history?
Thanks
Eric
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this is the extreme risk the seller takes doing subject too... they have deed the property away.. and are on the hook for the loan.. any foreclosure would go against them.
Plus if its in a state like Texas the bank could get a deficiency judgment as well against the seller.
The buyer of the property although maybe morally responsible or even contractually but if they have no assets for do not have the money to pay an mortgage whose Alienation clause has been invoked.. really does not matter seller is on the hook..
And if the people they sold to won't just willingly deed it back they can't even control the asset.. since they no longer own it.
Sub too while nice for a buyer is incredibly Risky for a seller ... unless very detailed safeguards are put into place.. which of course are rarely done... most sellers just figure this out when they get a late notice and freak out. !!! :)
If a buyer has limited capital they are not doing anyone any favors buying sub too.. the risk is just to great to the Poor seller.
- Jay Hinrichs
- Podcast Guest on Show #222
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