I'm so grateful to all for the vast amount of knowledge shared in these forums!

If I agree to this, can I put a lein directly on the property and would this and a contract sufficiently protect my position in the property?

Also you would need to have sufficient cash for this approach.

My team experts all seem to agree that holding title personally with sufficient insurance is low risk.

I'm planning on using a standard referral contract as sufficient documentation.

That's an expensive repair and one I wouldn't want to deal with while I was living there; especially considering if a leak were to happen or if the owner did not have sufficient funds to replace it. 

FHA won't work in this matter, but with conventional loans, if the house can appraise sufficiently, you are fine.  

*insert disclaimers about it being a law of averages over sufficient time and properties

Now you can learn from his vast experience and insight.

I've seen many related discussions on the boards here - but none that explicitly address what I'm looking for - at least in simple terms.Here's the scenario:Project:  Rehab and flip, own for less than 6 monthsHouse built: 1930Purchase price:  $34KEstimated rehab cost:  $50KARV:  $130KHere's what I'm looking at w/ respect to a quote I'm ready to go with:Vacant/Builders Risk Insurance, 6 month policyCoverage amt:  $130K, ACV (gathering RCV is not available industry-wide for house this old)Co-insurance: 80%Liability:  $500KTheft:  $5KMy question is basically - would this be considered sufficient coverage?