I reach out to a lender, submit the application (or verbally relay my information over the phone to avoid another hard inquiry), and when I ask for an estimate of rates, they disappear or take an unreasonable amount of time to respond and follow up is non existent. 

I don't see any provision in the old lease for "hold over".Does the tenant's verbal termination and failure to sign the new lease qualify as terminating the existing lease and start the 30 day clock for their move out?

I have been having to use newer properties and adjust the numbers as you suggest, but I was hoping for a more exact science if it existed.

Sure, there is value in all aspects of MFH but buying an existing property will provide you with immediate income but only when bought right. 

hi all,I have 2 judgments that I received from non paying tenants. one is for 700 and the other is for 3500.

Those are run by trusts and non profits.  

This works to your benefit as well.A majority of people I speak to want to get a non-exclusive agreement with me and it is very much a matter of if you can't commit to me, why would I commit to you? 

I wonder if when 'rich' people leverage, if they do in ways that they aren't personally responsible for the debt (e.g. non-recourse). 

I think this is why internal rate of return exists - I know we're talking about rules of thumb, but if I've got a property in an area expecting lots of rent growth, I can add value in other ways, etc. over the course of a few years, the present value of those future cash flows and any other liquidity events become very important and it could make sense to accept a much lower CoC in the near term. 

Now what if the seller offers to wrap the existing mortgage and finance me that way.