If I'm paying $2M for a home, I might object to that.That's all I can see.  

Lot is lenders miss that or just have you on as a non occupying co-signer which isn’t needed in that unique circumstance.See the third option under principle residence.https://selling-guide.fanniemae.com/Selling-Guide/Origination-thru-Closing/Subpart-B2-Eligibility/Chapter-B2-1-Mortgage-Eligibility/Section-B2-1-1-Occupancy-Types/1032995641/B2-1-1-01-Occupancy-Types-05-01-2019.htm

In my opinion, it comes down to your objectives.  

The main objective of this is to insure that the payment of the rent is equal to or greater than the mortgage payment. 

Market value increases and low cost debt are the objective for most investors.

The key is you must have the same values, goals and principles first and foremost.

I always like for my money to make money, so I would either pay down the principle (will save you money on interest over time), or add it to your reserve fund (if it has a decent interest rate, to make a little money).

What are/were your objectives buying the place originally?

According to my occupancy affidavit it states as below:– I/We will occupy the Property as my/our principle residencewithin Sixty (60) days after the date of closing as stated in the Mortgage or Deed of Trust I/weexecuted.

My biggest advice is to avoid the "shiny objects" and just settle on a market that works.