Review their management agreement.

Hey could also claim he was mentally ill, not of the right mindset, he could argue he did not sign the agreement someone signed it for him.

If it’s tied directly to the lender as part of your mortgage agreement, you’d probably need to negotiate with them or refinance with a different lender who doesn’t require that restriction.However, if the restriction is part of the property deed itself and was placed by a previous owner or another party, it can be more complicated.

.: I haven't really noticed any change at all in my market except minor changes to the standard contracts (minor language changes in contract to buy and sell, listing agreement, and buyer's agency agreement). 

My GUESS is these homeowners have been tricked/screwed in to signing a long term power purchase agreement, often with no buy out provision.

If we rent to own, they are OK, but we cant refinance because we don't have the deed.Are there any unique scenarios to help us get the property for little money out of pocket, we have the ability to have the deedSign a lease agreement with a purchase option that allows you to buy the property at an agreed price at the end of the lease term, consider establishing a partnership with the seller to jointly invest in property repairs and improvements.

In the meantime I would love to have some helpful information or ideas to share with the buyers when we meet and ideally an agreement/contract we could fill out together once new terms are agreed to and then share that with the attorney so he could draft up the formal instrument for recording.If you have experience with this type of scenario, I’d love to hear any recommendations you have or any helpful resources you could point me to for the appropriate paperwork.Under foreclosure laws, you have to send appropriate notices and try to work with the borrower and offer a loan mod before foreclosure anyway. 

I came across one of these loan agreements online somewhere a few months ago, can't recall where I found it but it was clear in reading the loan agreement there was no language referencing the loan actually encumbering real property, it was just an unsecured loan. 

I do accept partial payments with a written agreement only.

How is PM charging you if the agreement is over?