I know this because I run the Central WI REIA and most of the real players in the area are only making low all cash offers or using conventional financing.

For our first deal I just scoured the internet, found the lowest rate out there, and got a conventional mortgage.

When I bought it, I bought an inventory home in an area in San Antonio I thought would appreciate.

I currently have a conventional loan on my home and am wondering if I can use an FHA loan to buy a duplex so long as I move out of my current home and into the duplex.

Is it possible to get rates closer to conventional numbers?

Doesn't matter if I just get three conventional mortgages or attempt to buy in cash?

Terry Skinner don’t over thinking and and get confused with conventional knowledge.

The house does not qualify for a conventional loan because of its condition.

But I'd like to run the numbers in the scenario as I move out after 2 years living there to check the cashflow- Financing: owner occupied conventional loan - Downpayment: 5% - Interest rate: 4% - Loan period: 30 years (fixed) - Vacancy of 5%, Repairs of 5%, Capex of 5%, and PM of 10% - I assume I can get 10% discount based on how long it's been on the market (purchase price of $719,100) - I used Realtor.com from the link and based on purchase price of $719,100 it gives me prop tax of $749- I relied on the listing agent data of $92 per month for home insurance - I relied on the listing agent data of $112.50 per month for water, $112.50 for sewage, $95 for garbage, and $60 for lawn care (assuming the tenants pay for their own electricity and gas) - I left PMI to be 0 since I do not know how to calculate this Result: Based on assumptions and MLS listing, this property cashflow -$1,280.00 (aka, a horrible investment).

Typically it is 10% or less it is considered stabilized and the property will qualify for a "conventional" of a paper loan.