I have heard from others recently that it is possible as long as you fulfill a minimum occupancy like a year or so.

Just keep in mind that you guys will not agree on everything and if God forbid one of you could not fulfill the financial obligations down the line because of unforeseen circumstances, the other investor will hold the responsibility of maintaining the investment or risk loosing it altogether.

As an 'eyecon', this star fulfilled its role with splendour and before I knew it, I was {re}reading the sales pitch for BP Pro.

Home was built in the 50s with original owner.List Price: 95kRenovations: 18kTotal Cost: 113kCost + holding costs + realtor fees: 127kPotential ARV: 150-170k Potential Profit: 23 - 43kAccording to the 70% calculator a 162k sale price or above would fulfill the 70% rule.Any thoughts, comments, suggestions?

What this means is while it is great he is trying to fill the vacancy he doesn't have to and as long as he fulfils all his other lease terms you must honor the lease just as if it were expiring due to time.

Well, I did inform her yesterday via registered mail that she is being charged with a late fee for not fulfilling her rent payment as stated in her lease and she was also informed that she had no authority to make any deductions from her rent without prior approval from the property manager or us.

This funding provided us with the capital and liquidity needed to fulfill our mission of providing liquidity and support to the nation’s housing finance markets....

I would really rather not hire someone in OH to fulfill this requirement.  

How does the bank know if you are fulfilling your one year owner-occupied requirement?

I am referring to direct marketing costs ( lists, stamps, envelopes, fulfillments etc.)