Multiply that by 10 and you are starting to save some serious money on taxes!

His $420 pm income was derived from the fact that he used $700 per month rent multiplied by .6 (for vacancy and repairs) to come to $420.Regards,Azeez

The actual SE tax amount will be less than 15.3%.The SE tax calculation would be $100,000 multiplied by .9325 = $92,350.

multiply sq ft times 3.81 with 8ft sheets gives you total rough sq ft for walls and ceilinglabor will be between $1-$2.25 Depending on area

Multiply that number by the cost per kWh in your area, then issue a credit to the tenant for that amount.

Add all the figures up the. multiply by 4 (4= 4 different platforms) You will find for example a figure of $318,000-   This will be your ARV.  

Just remember any sort of historic renovations and maintenance are going to cost you much more than a standard upgrade, so if you're renting this out make sure your repair budget is at least 2x (a somewhat arbitrary estimate, talk to contractors who deal with historical renovations for an accurate ballpark on the multiplier for doing historic work) what you would otherwise budget for a non historic house .

Due to the current tenants obsession with the color gold, remodeling is recommended.As far as how to get a a property with no money, I believe you take 70 percent of 1 percent, multiply that by the ARV minus your repairs and wholesale fee and that’s your offer.  

(Though I think you forgot to multiply NOI by 12 to get an annual figure to determine Cap  or cash on cash return of 7.7%).  

I'm wondering if anyone here can explain the reasoning and comment on the formula's validity.He says, "The precise formula is that your loan-to-value ratio multiplied by your annual constant must be lower than your cap rate to get positive cash flow"so that's,LTV * C < CapRate --> positive cash flow(C = Annual constant)He goes on to define the terms like so,LTV = Loan/ValueC = (annual payments) / (loan balance)Cap rate = NOI / Price NOI (Net operating income) = income - expensesIf you do some algebra you can restate the formula as,(loan/value) * (price / loan balance) * annual payments < NOI --> positive cash flowBeing somewhat simple minded I would have thought that the formula for positive cash flow would be simply,annual payments < NOI --> positive cash flowBut I don't understand the multipliers on the left side,(loan/value) * (price/balance)Can anyone explain to me why they should be considered?