If I refer all my non-equity calls to a interested sub2 buyer (with the sellers consent), and the buyer agrees to pay me if they close on one, they're paying for the lead, but I haven't brokered the deal.As for the concerns on this thread about a wholesaler not closing on a contract: Ideally, the terms of any contract make clear the time frame and contingencies of the sale so that the seller makes an informed choice.

At the very minimum they should see if they can negotiate a waiver of deficiency for a consent judgment instead of just walking away.

it actually is if done correctly... in Texas you can assign the tax lien from the taxing authority if the owner of the property consents. i can now foreclose on this property, but i want to keep it rather than take it to auction. any attorneys out there???

I agree with Joel, this is a perfect example of why paying for attorneys services can actually save you money, not cost more.Get an attorney, the deed can be corrected but not without both parties consenting and if sis is not going to be cooperative, an attorney is your only choice.

Any lease/option triggers the due on sale clause.http://law.justia.com/cfr/title12/12-5.0.1.1.54.0.83.2.html(b) Due-on-sale clause means a contract provision which authorizes the lender, at its option, to declare immediately due and payable sums secured by the lender's security instrument upon a sale of transfer of all or any part of the real property securing the loan without the lender's prior written consent.

Conduct himself/herself and require other persons on the premises with his consent to conduct themselves in a manner that will not disturb his neighbors' peaceful enjoyment; and i.)

A zoning restriction is not agreed to by voluntary consent, it is mandated by public tribunal.

This is what mine says: Borrower shall occupy, establish, and use the Property as Borrower's principal residence within 60 days after the execution of this Security Instrument and shall continue to occupy the Property as Borrower's principal residence for at least one year after the date of occupancy, unless Lender otherwise agrees in writing, which consent shall not be unreasonably withheld, or unless extenuating circumstances exist which are beyond Borrower's controlSo in my case, my contract is pretty straight forward.

My deals didn't have anywhere near double the price, the loans were with recourse, additional collateral was given for amounts received over 80% LTV, some were made as assumable loans that took me out with the private lender's consent, some were wraps, some made with seconds, my company serviced the loans and made a spread on the total amounts financed as well as mine, of course I sold notes as well as partials, and I could refinance the loans as well.

Borrower shall be in default if, during theLoan application process1 Borrower or any persons or entities acting at thedirection of Borrower or With Borrower's knowledge or consent gave materiallyfalse, misleading, or inaccurate information or statements to Lender (or failed toprov1de Lender with material information) in connection with the Loan.