What was the deal - what did you two talk about - as in lets say a contract?

Putting 2 and 2 together, if you really want to start out as an investor, I think it is wise to deal with a real professional, as per say a company that just takes you in, to sell their profits.

It would seem that if My Loan was say a 5 year ARM when I first got the loan, that I would want to go with a 15 -20 year Conventional and NOT a 30 year , as I have just paid  on my Loan for 5 years , yes ?

@Tyler Kaye put another way, you would be the holder of the "First Mortgage" in a situation where say a buyer is purchasing a house for $100K and did an 80%/20% loan, First position would be the 80% and second position would be the 20%, you always want to be first in line if they default. 

I was able to owner finance and my favorite method was low down say a few grand.. and ZERO % interest carry with higher than normal payments but enough that the buyer could break even on cash flow if they managed them themselves...

Simply purchasing two or three 4-plexes will have you managing a dozen units and give you an idea of what it would take to manage say...a 25-unit building.

DISCLAIMER: I'm just a newbie, so take everything I say as just one guy's crappy opinion.

Another drawback is lets say a DE underwriter declines a borrower for FHA, and that borrower goes to another lender for a FHA loan, the new DE underwriter can see the previous DE's notes and likely will not approve them. 

As stated in my subject line, I have three single family homes I would like to sell with owner financing over say a 5-10 year period. 

In that instance, if the cap rate stays the same, the calculated value will be artificially lower than the market value so how did you model or bake-in this market appreciation into say a 5 or 10 yr model?