Originally posted by @Jon Fletcher:
I read a lot here about people having passive losses or paper losses once depreciation is factored in. But depreciation for a residential property is only 3.636% each year (27.5 years). I know this is a good problem to have, but my properties generate a return closer to 6% per year after expenses, so there is still taxable income. Am I missing something?
How is this possible? Is it because you have zero (or very small) LTV?
Assuming 1% rule for revenue and 50% rule for opex, the annual return will be 6%, assuming no mortgage.
For 80% LTV with good interest rate, the mortgage payments would be around 30-35% of the revenue. Subtract the depreciation of 3% after accounting for the mortgage payments, and you will have a paper loss.
By paying cash (i.e. no mortgage) for the rental property, anyone can get positive cash flow even after accounting for depreciation loss. That will happen even if the investment is very poor. Hope this is not the reason for getting positive cash flow even after accounting for depreciation. Because the cash on cash return will be very low for the risk involved (not to mention trapped equity).
Another way to get positive cash flow (with 80% LTV) even after accounting for depreciation loss is to have very high revenue (much higher than 1% rule) and very low opex (much lower than 50% rule) - this is generally achievable in war zones. Hope this is not the reason for getting positive cash flow even after accounting for depreciation.
Generally a good investment will have a paper loss. In fact it’s the poor investments (bought with cash, war zones) that generate positive cash flow even after accounting for depreciation loss. Poor is a relative term though - for many people dealing with war zone properties is their bread and butter, and for many people buying rentals with no mortgage is better than having cash in the savings account.
Or am I missing something?