All Forum Posts by: Laura Turner

I had a plumber run plumbing for a washing machine.  He hooked up the supply lines about 7 inches above the water heater in the basement - hot water ties in 7" above water heater output, and cold water supply ties in about 7" above the intake to the water heater.

Now, when I turn on my kitchen faucet directly above the water heater, the cold water runs hot for a few seconds before it turns cold.  The plumber says that's because I'm getting the 7 inches of heated water  between the water heater and the cold water line.    Which I guess makes sense ... but if that's the case, why didn't the cold water run hot for a few seconds before that?  Why have I never in my life noticed this issue from any faucet in my house, a public bathroom, etc? 

Is it ok for him to have tied in the water there?  Or should he have tied in somewhere else?

Thank you.

Maybe you could take the deduction, but cya - disclose it on Form 8275?

http://www.offshorepress.com/vkjcpa/preparer_penalties.htm

Fire the property manager and file a complaint with the National Association of Realtors. Not that they'll do anything, but it should make the management company think twice about next time they try to rip off an absentee landlord, a second similar complaint with the NAR would draw attention.

She has an 800+ credit score?

Unless she's using a false ID, maintaining her credit score is obviously very important to her.  Not just for renting an apartment, but also for getting a job, car insurance, etc.

Yeah, you're probably better off getting rid of her any way possible.  But it may be worthwhile to point out to her that if you turn this over to a collection agency, her score will plummet.  That'll give you some leverage if you decide to hold onto the deposit that's legally yours.

Thanks Pat,

This is an electric dryer.

Was the gas line the only reason you couldn't get it flush?

If you could get it flush, is there any reason not to?

I'm planning to put a stackable washer and dryer in a very tight space.  Manufacturer's specs indicate a minimum of 5" behind the unit.  Why?

There's space behind the washer for the dryer exhaust, which can go down through the floor.  And I should be able to fit the supply lines and drain there.

The only problem, and the only reason I see for the 5" clearance in back, is the vents on the dryer.  I'm concerned that dampness would damage the wall.  The salesman assures me that the vents are for air intake only and the unit can go flush - that if I open up the wall there will be sufficient air intake from the air between the studs - but of course he'd say that; he's trying to sell me the unit.

Comments?

So after many months of waiting the agent informed me that the bank finally approved my offer on a short sale. Just a few days before closing, the title company tells me that the bank hasn't okayed paying for the significant final water and sewer bills. Ideally the bank will decide to pay, but if they don't and my only option is pay or don't close -then what? I'd understood that everything was approved and ready to go.  Is this something the agent should have been aware of?

Marcia I like your lease clauses about protecting the plumbing. One thing though, tenants don't care if they damage your plumbing or the environment as long as they don't get busted for it. Caustic drain cleaners will leave a telltale mark in an aluminum sink, if your tenants know that they'll think twice about using it.

btw, dumbest tenant I ever had was a college kid I was renting a room to when I was in college. He flushed a banana peel down the toilet, was surprised when it clogged. "But it's biodegradable!"

Thanks Chris, Wayne,

Not sure what's owed on the first mortgage, but it was bought near the market peak and bank's appraised value is 63% of the seller's purchase price, and my offer is below that.  I'd guess that the first mortgage is underwater even without taking the second mortgage into consideration.

So what exactly does

"In the event of sale or transfer of the Premises, the Borrower's obligation to repay Lender, as provided for in the Borrower's Promissory Note of even date herewith, shall be limited to the extent that funds are available for such purpose after satisfaction of the Prior Mortgage(s)."

mean?

I interpret that to mean that, since Borrower's obligation is limited to excess funds, and there will be no excess funds, then Borrower's obligation is limited to zero, and the second mortgage is dead.

What am I missing?