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All Forum Posts by: Benjamin Cowles

Benjamin Cowles has started 92 posts and replied 441 times.

Originally posted by @Robert Sepulveda:

@Benjamin Cowles, you're asking for two different scenarios

  1. Owner Finance: You're right, it's a function of your overall debt to income ratio and a 12 month mortgage history, since it is essentially a private mortgage. You may get a few lenders who'll let you do it with a 6 month history but it may be difficult to find. After that, it is a loan to value qualification. How much debt vs the value of your property that will usually stay at 95% or less as long as you're not taking cash out.
  2. Lease option: you don't own the property, so it wouldn't be considered a refinance at all. You'll have to exercise your option to purchase, then enter escrow and get qualified to buy the property. Expect a 5% downpayment requirement for conventional loans (there are some exceptions for 3% and 1% down programs- check with your lender) and then all the qualifying conditions mentioned above. So if you're looking to get into a creative deal that allows you to refinance out the seller, owner finance would be better. However, if you are looking to buy and live in the property or use the property while you save for a downpayment, then this could work for you.

Hope that helps

Thanks Rob. You say "since it's a private mortgage". What did you mean by that? When I apply to refinance say 3 years after paying the seller, what will a lender care about what type of arrangement I have with the seller?

I think what I'm asking is do lenders ever look at just the income a property produces vs it's debt service rather than the applicant's overall income vs their overall debt?

I do my property analysis based on the property itself , not my self and my total income and debt ratio. And now just thinking about it it would seem silly for a lender not to consider an applicant's overall financial situation over just the asset they're applying for a loan for.

So assuming they do look at the total financial situation, do they look at the asset itself as an income producing business? And how is it weighed?

I plan on producing income through flipping so I guess I'm foreseeing a possible situation where in the beginning I might land more 'buy and hold's vs flips through seller financing then come up on a balloon payment and be forced to sell rather than refinance because my income statement is insufficient. I guess either way I'm not too concerned and do expect to be flipping enough to produce sufficient income but I am new at this so I'm just trying to foresee as many scenarios as possible. Thanks!

If you get something with owner finance or lease option how do you know when you'll be able to refinance? 

Is it usually a matter of your overall debt to income ratio and it's length of history? Or is it just the income of your property to it's debt service(I wish)? How do conventional loan(not FHA) providers qualify you?

Post: Joint venture with the seller on rehab?

Benjamin CowlesPosted
  • Cape Coral, FL
  • Posts 469
  • Votes 32

what type of agreement did you ever settle on? Do you happen to have a copy to share?

Post: If you can't go under contract for the sole purpose of assigning

Benjamin CowlesPosted
  • Cape Coral, FL
  • Posts 469
  • Votes 32

...it(just read it somewhere), does simply including another OPTIONAL intention/objective make it legal or safer? 

I'm thinking I disclose this but not as my SOLE intention but ALONG with (or) to acquire financing to keep it for myself, to the seller and provide a 5 day non-exclusivity period w/ 5% refundable EMD which also will serve as my 5 day financing contingency, after which if the seller didn't find a buyer AND either I did OR got financing, the contract becomes binding and I submit another 5% EMD. Then I have 5 more days for an inspection.

Sorry if this already has been presented enough times, I just didn't catch it and I've been reading a lot on wholesaling. 

I'm trying to acquire a portfolio while making some cash along the way via rehabs and double closes or contract assignments when/if possible so I want to figure out a sensible way to enter into a contract. And I could use this approach with lease options also. Just thinking. You tell me. 

Originally posted by @Bill Gulley:

@JT Spangler

Actually, it's not advanced stuff, it's basic real estate, you can find it free through my signature. 

Purchase and re-purchase agreements can have a sale based on an appraised value acceptable obtained in the future, to the owners at the time the contract is made, or the average of two appraisals, or a price agreed to today, it simple requires a price that can be ascertained when the contract is exercised. Such sale contracts can be over a specific period or time or be executed on a specific occurrence, trigger events could be the death of one partner in title, or both, or if the sun does or does not rise on a Monday, in other words, anything can be agreed to as a triggering event.  

Title ownership is like a piece of pie, it can be divided many ways. This is taught in basic real estate classes. Tenancy in Common (TIC) is a form of ownership and the owners may use a "TIC Agreement", unspoken of on BP I believe, a TIC Agreement spells out out such matters as what an ownership interest an owner has, their rights to use a property, common areas, notices of sale, rights of first refusal, any option of other owners, future sales required upon certain events and any reversionary interests that may operate by law. This agreement does not need to be complex, but one could be.

TIC Agreements are more common in apartment complexes with multiple owners, it is used to avoid condo or planned unit development restrictions, however a TIC can be used for holding title to any real estate parcel, including single family residential properties.

Simply look up Tenancy in Common as rights change upon a sale or death of an owner, not a problem when a TIC Agreement is used, so consult your attorney as to local and state requirements.

Contrary to popular investor beliefs on the internet, nothing really ties up title other than a restrictive covenant to title or joint tenancy ownership exists where both or all owners must agree to pass all interests in title, subject to state laws. I can buy legal title to a property you hold an option on, subject to that option just as I can with any other lien or encumbrance. Again, basic real estate. Your right of first refusal is generally made as to passing all title interests, not part, so depending on how that agreement is made, I could buy a third interest, in the event all interests are to be sold, we'd give the holder a call! :)

In six years on BP, I've not seen any in depth discussion about the use of TIC ownership, I guess it's over the heads of the gurus, because most of the strategies attempted by investors can be better accomplished with TIC.

1. A minority interest in title keeps majority owners safe from general liens or judgments of a minority holder.

2. It allows the Wholesaler to advertise the property all day long, take out a billboard ad in front of the state real estate commission in Oho or any other state without fear of getting nailed!

3. It allows a fix and flipper to go in, obtain building permits as an owner, execute contracts and establish liens to the extent of their ownership.

4. It allows an owner to lease their interests or all interests of a property, that takes care of your sandwich lease junk where the first tear tenant, the investor, can't contract for repairs or maintenance. 

5. Future equity may be assigned under a TIC Agreement, something long term option holders like to obtain.

6. It is much more difficult to have a TIC transfer with an unrecorded TIC agreement to be found or recognized as a disguised sale or an installment agreement. You simply declare the minority purchase.

7. Since minority interests are generally protected from creditors, it's a good tool for estate planning. 

8. If not otherwise restricted by a TIC Agreement, an owner in TIC may obtain loans up to their interests held.

9. By slicing up the TIC interests you can have more than one owner holding the slice of pie of the total ownership, for those using partners.

10. A TIC can be in or part of an LLC or Trust, so the games played there are all available to the TIC ownership arrangement.

NOTE: Selling any interest in a property securing a mortgage can trigger the due on sale clause. Now, I have seen options and installment contracts as well as long leases trigger the DOS, I've never heard of a lender calling a loan due because title was held in TIC.

I hate to let the cat out of the bag, but this is just one aspect of why I tell beginners to learn real estate instead of this guru monkey business they chase like chickens with their heads cut off and getting into unethical and illegal messes.

There is nothing new in real estate and there is nothing that you can do legally that hasn't been done before. 

You mean newbies pass up divorce deals where one party refuses to sell...... buy the interest held, the other party will sell, one way or another!

Learn the basics of real estate before trying to deal in real estate!  :)

 Super post! Thanks

Post: "flex option agreement"

Benjamin CowlesPosted
  • Cape Coral, FL
  • Posts 469
  • Votes 32
Originally posted by @Marv Jordan:

 Don't you need to put down something in order to legally gain equitable interest? I thought I read that many times/places. 

Post: Wholesaling: How do you deal with Non-refundable Deposits?

Benjamin CowlesPosted
  • Cape Coral, FL
  • Posts 469
  • Votes 32
Originally posted by @John Thedford:

@Benjamin Cowles

The "wholesalers" are pretty much done in this state unless they are licensed. Fl Statute 475.43 put an end to these scammers. You CAN sell a contract but you cannot advertise the property. Seems pretty tough to sell a contract without marketing the property! Even with a contract you cannot market the property UNLESS you are a licensee.

Thanks

Post: NJ Non Exclusive Option Agreement

Benjamin CowlesPosted
  • Cape Coral, FL
  • Posts 469
  • Votes 32

Isa, did you ever do this type of contract or the FROR as Bill suggested? I'm not sure how the FROR serves any purpose you had in mind of keeping the seller free to market his/her property while you work to secure funding or a buyer.

Speaking of which, with Dodd Frank, in such a contract I can't imagine you could state as a non-agent that you'd be looking for a buyer could you? Would you just mention your intention of securing funding only in this type of contract to be on the safe side, pun intended?

Post: Wholesaling: How do you deal with Non-refundable Deposits?

Benjamin CowlesPosted
  • Cape Coral, FL
  • Posts 469
  • Votes 32
Originally posted by @Cory Baker:

I had suggested in a lengthy email (with scenarios and examples) to one Wholesaler that maybe a flex- option would work with other wholesalers. If I have an option to purchase that is to expire in 15 days with terms allowing the the seller to continue to market the property while I either fund or find an end buyer, then with that option I could market my interest in the property to another and assign my option to them.

 When you say "allow the seller to continue to market..." do you mean the wholesaler? Isn't the seller under exclusive contact to sell to the wholesaler?

Post: Non-exclusive option contract to gain equitable interest?

Benjamin CowlesPosted
  • Cape Coral, FL
  • Posts 469
  • Votes 32
Originally posted by @Vince Mayer:

@Benjamin Cowles No a letter of intent doesn't give you equitable interest. If the seller still wants to have the ability to sell outright to a buyer while you have an option agreement, write that into your option agreement. Make it contingent upon what happens first, he finds a buyer or you find a sub-lessee or sell your option agreement. 

Thanks. And no, not an agent nor have I one.