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All Forum Posts by: Cheyenne Davis

Cheyenne Davis has started 29 posts and replied 65 times.

Post: MLS Question (State Specific?)

Cheyenne DavisPosted
  • Investor
  • Casselberry, FL
  • Posts 65
  • Votes 19

I'm working with a buyers agent to help locate deals in the Central Florida market. He told me that the MLS doesn't allow searches and/or alerts by keywords. In the past, I've always gotten alerts when listings are added with specific keywords which may indicate a distressed sale i.e. Motivated, foundation issues - etc.

Can anyone confirm that the MLS has changed and no longer allows searches and alerts by keywords?Seems hard to believe...

Also, if it has changed (or even if it hasn't), I'd love to hear some "best practices" for finding deals on the MLS.

Post: Buying "Subject to" and Seller Wants a Written Guarantee...

Cheyenne DavisPosted
  • Investor
  • Casselberry, FL
  • Posts 65
  • Votes 19

Dion,

I get what you're saying, but a lot of it is based on assumptions and hypotheticals, i.e. if it's FHA or VA there could be mail fraud involved, or if you don't make the payments and do it more than twice in a 3 year period it's a felony, etc. Admittedly, I didn't go into grueling detail in my OP, but that was mostly because I wasn't looking for a long winded explanation. I realize the options are a written doc rehashing what we discussed, which is what the seller asked us for, or a note and mortgage for a wrap.

Also, when you said:

"Then we move to talking about giving the Seller a mortgage and note opposed to or as the said guarantee. After mentioning the delivery of a security interest, we presume the Seller somehow is in a lesser position. Well, if you give a mortgage, they are a Mortgagee with an interest. Hardly a position of lesser power/stance."

You misinterpreted what I was saying. I meant that if we use a written document rehashing what was discussed along with the seller deeding the property away, they're going to be in a weakened position. That's reality, no matter how many different ways you try to spin it or how many hypotheticals you throw into the scenario. Once a deed is transferred, the previous owner is no longer the owner and it's going to be an uphill battle to change that fact. Clearly, if its done as a wrap, the original owner has a more clear cut path to getting the property back if the payments aren't made via foreclosure, but again, that's adding "what ifs" into the OP. 

I realize a document rehashing what was promised adds strength to the sellers position, but what is being missed here is that I don't care that the seller has recourse. I'm not going to default on what was promised and if I did, he can have the property back. I have absolutely no problem whatsoever with the seller being fully protected and I am the one who disclosed all of the potential pitfalls in structuring the deal this way in the first place. We are working together to find a way that the deal can be done in a fair and comfortable way for both parties. 

Next...

". . .if the giving of [the] advice and performance of [the] services affect important rights of a person under the law, and if the reasonable protection of the rights and property of those advised and served requires that the persons giving such advice possess legal skill and a knowledge of the law greater than that possessed by the average citizen, then the giving of such advice and the performance of such services by one for another as a course of conduct constitute the practice of law"

The above quote references giving legal advice, which I'm not doing and is not relevant to drafting contracts. We were discussing drafting documents. I realize drafting certain legal documents could be practicing law. We are using an attorney to close the transaction, so if there's a gray area in that I will just have him draft them. However, just for discussion sake, I think something is being missed here. It's common knowledge that private sellers, landlords, estate heirs and investors use "boiler plate" type of documents on a daily basis, nationwide, to conduct real estate transactions. For example, a quick scan of public records in any county will reveal many quitclaim deeds prepared by a family member, executed, recorded and returned to them. Or, a landlord uses his/her own lease or one which they got from the purchase of a guru course. Same with land trusts, contracts for deed, special warranty deeds etc. Then there's the legal assistants who sell do-it-yourself/Pro Se foreclosure defense documents, BK contracts etc. All of these people aren't practicing law on a daily basis, so there is something being missed here. It's been a while since I researched the subject, but I do remember that there is something that allows the use of those documents which aren't prepared from scratch each time.

Can anyone/comment expand on that?

In closing, Dion, I'm not trying to be a jerk either, or come across as argumentative. I appreciate what you shared and it's been an interesting discussion. I'm being "matter off fact" here, too, so it may not come off all "flowery" either.

Post: Buying "Subject to" and Seller Wants a Written Guarantee...

Cheyenne DavisPosted
  • Investor
  • Casselberry, FL
  • Posts 65
  • Votes 19

This has turned into a very interesting thread. I didn't go into great detail in my original post, so it seems certain things have been left to the imagination.

@diondepaoli - I think it's a reach to say "The statement made above is a little egregious (and naive) where OP talks about their interests being protect and perhaps the Seller's interests not being 'as' protected. A predatory sounding statement for sure. Let's be honest, as it sounds right now, this all just looks like a method to circumvent real estate licensing requirements onto the OP. Something Florida Realtor Boards are looking for and bring charges. That charge is a 3rd degree felony."  

I don't think it's a "predatory statement" to state a fact which is true in most traditional sub2 transactions. When a seller willingly deeds a property to a buyer and willingly agrees to have the loan stay in his/her name, they're leaving certain things up to chance. Once the seller deeds the property away, they're going to have a difficult time getting the property back. It's a fact that they're in a less desirable spot in terms of leverage in the deal. I don't make that statement in a predatory sense, and I certainly don't intend on taking advantage of anyone. It's just the reality of sub2 transactions.

Next, I have a hard time seeing where this sounds like an attempt at circumventing real estate licensing requirements (probably because I know all of the details and you don't, as I didn't disclose them). What was said which makes you come to that conclusion?

The reality is that we are buying the property sub2 (closing with an attorney and getting title insurance), rehabbing it and then listing it for sale (with a realtor) at market value. 

There's some great points that have been made in this thread. I'm glad I asked the question. Also, I understand why Dion and others may "assume the worst". There's so many guru's that teach questionable tactics and sub2 is definitely a tactic which could be used in dishonest ways and there's no shortage of "investors" using the technique in questionable ways. 

One thing I definitely wasn't aware of is that it's a felony to draft a promissory note or security instrument for personal use without being a lawyer. I know you can't practice law without a license (obviously), but it's not illegal to prepare a deed or a rental contract, so what makes a note different? Can you share a link (Dion) where I could read up on that a little more?

Post: Buying "Subject to" and Seller Wants a Written Guarantee...

Cheyenne DavisPosted
  • Investor
  • Casselberry, FL
  • Posts 65
  • Votes 19

Thank you all for the responses. They have been very helpful! I actually just need something to comfort the seller, which rehashes what we have discussed i.e. that I'm agreeing to make the payments in his name until I resell the house. I thought about just giving him a note and mortgage and specifying that the payments will be made directly to the underlying lender, I just think that could get a little tricky with verbiage.

I'll have the deed to the property and at the end of the day, the best case scenario for the current owner to take the property back would be to somehow foreclose or take us to court. Our interest will be very protected in the deal, just maybe not the owners. With all of that said, the payments will be made and most of this won't be an issue. I just need a written document to get us past closing. The seller actually isn't looking for anything more than a short, written statement saying we will pay the payments. I realize that he isn't going to have much recourse if we don't, but it will just make him feel better. I thought maybe I could find a simple document, but at this point I'm thinking I'll just write out a statement that we agree to make the payments on time and leave it at that...

Post: Buying "Subject to" and Seller Wants a Written Guarantee...

Cheyenne DavisPosted
  • Investor
  • Casselberry, FL
  • Posts 65
  • Votes 19

Hi all - I'm new here, but have watced and read for a while without jumping in. I'm buying a house sub2 and the seller is asking me for a written guarantee that we will pay his payments. In the past, I've never had to use these, although I don't mind.

Can anyone tell me what document to use? Does anyone have one specific to sub2 transactions? All I've ever seen and heard of is cya docs which state the exact opposite.