I need some input from mortgage pros :) I've run into this situation a couple times and haven't found a solid answer. Here's the scenario...
We have a married couple who's interested in purchasing one of our houses. The husband bought a house which went into foreclosure years ago when the market crashed (they were married when purchased). The loan on the house was taken out only in the husband's name. To date, they're still living in the house, presumably because the lender never completed the foreclosure for one reason or another. The debt was discharged in a chapter 7 4 or 5 years ago.
Now the couple wants to buy one of our houses and the wife is the only one who will qualify for the mortgage. She's open to FHA or any conventional loan and can put down 20% if needed. Debt to income and credit are fine. For housing information, she will list there address and note that her husband is responsible for that payment. That would explain her rental/mtg history and because it's only her qualifying for the new mortgage, the fact that the current residence has been in foreclosure for so long may not be an issue (or maybe it just goes unnoticed).
Does anyone have any experience with this type of situation? No reason for her even to apply and run credit, or us waste time taking the house off the market, if there's zero percent chance of approval. However, if these types of situations slide through the cracks often or lenders are just ok with the situation because it's only her qualifying, then it may be worth it to her to consider rolling the dice.