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Updated over 11 years ago,
Negative cash flow in lieu of principle only payments?
I have a seller willing to carry owner financing with no money down, principle only payments with a 2 year balloon. The payments she is willing to take would result in a negative cash flow when rented for the 2 year period until the balloon.
The purchase price is pretty much right at current market value. I'm wondering if it is worth paying market price now and negative cash flow for two years, then could refi then, potentially being at a 20% equity position. I would then be in a cash flow position without having to put the 20% down all in one chunk.
Does this make any sense or am I just being silly?