Skip to content
×
Try PRO Free Today!
BiggerPockets Pro offers you a comprehensive suite of tools and resources
Market and Deal Finder Tools
Deal Analysis Calculators
Property Management Software
Exclusive discounts to Home Depot, RentRedi, and more
$0
7 days free
$828/yr or $69/mo when billed monthly.
$390/yr or $32.5/mo when billed annually.
7 days free. Cancel anytime.
Already a Pro Member? Sign in here

Join Over 3 Million Real Estate Investors

Create a free BiggerPockets account to comment, participate, and connect with over 3 million real estate investors.
Use your real name
By signing up, you indicate that you agree to the BiggerPockets Terms & Conditions.
The community here is like my own little personal real estate army that I can depend upon to help me through ANY problems I come across.
Innovative Strategies
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

Updated almost 5 years ago on . Most recent reply

User Stats

38
Posts
5
Votes
Shalom Benton
  • Rental Property Investor
  • Tallahassee, FL
5
Votes |
38
Posts

Riddle me this: why foreclose if you paid cash?

Shalom Benton
  • Rental Property Investor
  • Tallahassee, FL
Posted

Riddle me this:

I recently saw this happen but I can’t figure out what the loophole is....

A trust fund baby purchases home #1 in cash for 50k. Lives in it for a few years. Buys home #2 in cash. Moves into it. A year later, Buys home number #3 (a mansion), and then the bank forecloses on home #1 and lists it for sale.

What is the loophole? Why would a wealthy person, who paid cash for a home, foreclose...? instead of just selling it?

I’m interested to know your wild ideas on what the loophole could be. Personally, I don’t know the answer. But I have my own guesses haha

Most Popular Reply

User Stats

5,738
Posts
8,904
Votes
Don Konipol
#1 Innovative Strategies Contributor
  • Lender
  • The Woodlands, TX
8,904
Votes |
5,738
Posts
Don Konipol
#1 Innovative Strategies Contributor
  • Lender
  • The Woodlands, TX
Replied

@Shalom Benton

If the buyer paid cash for the home, their would be no mortgage and hence no foreclosure by a lender. There may be unpaid property taxes, or a judgement which could be the basis for a foreclosure action. Or the owner may have taken a loan secured by the property after the cash purchase.

My best guess would be that you’re not in possession of all the facts. The reasons for financial problems are numerous and varied. Rarely is a sophisticated strategy involved. Normally the result of poor financial management or a life out of control.

  • Don Konipol
business profile image
Private Mortgage Financing Partners, LLC

Loading replies...