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Updated almost 13 years ago on . Most recent reply
![Jake Kucheck's profile image](https://bpimg.biggerpockets.com/no_overlay/uploads/social_user/user_avatar/9910/1674234371-avatar-oc_pro.jpg?twic=v1/output=image/crop=282x282@0x0/cover=128x128&v=2)
The 6.1% Rule
Let's assume I'm working in a vacuum, where there is no appreciation, no debt, stable rents, and the 50% rule applies. My goal is to be recapitalized on my initial acquisition + rehab in three years or less from the net rents received.
That would mean my equation would look like this for a property that makes sense to buy:
.91*[(R*36)/2] > (Acquisition + Rehab)
So, after doing some number crunching on some real life examples (assuming 9% property management fees and the 50% rule), it would appear that dividing the rent amount by .061 I can come up with my max purchase price.
Anyone care to shoot some holes in this?
Most Popular Reply
![Steve Babiak's profile image](https://bpimg.biggerpockets.com/no_overlay/uploads/social_user/user_avatar/32109/1621365972-avatar-stevebabiak.jpg?twic=v1/output=image/cover=128x128&v=2)
If I could find properties that rent for $1000 and be all-in at $16.4K - well that's a no-brainer in most cases (war-zones would still be excluded). I suspect such properties will be rather difficult to find.
BTW - the PM is "built into" the 50% rule, so no need to make the adjustment with the 0.91 factor there.