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Updated over 3 years ago on . Most recent reply
![Nick Reuter's profile image](https://bpimg.biggerpockets.com/no_overlay/uploads/social_user/user_avatar/43443/1629145448-avatar-shortsaleart.jpg?twic=v1/output=image/crop=1023x1023@418x656/cover=128x128&v=2)
2nd STR Purchase Lender?
Hi all,
I live in FL (primary home), and we have a STR property (that our family uses a lot as well) in Banner Elk, NC. We bought this property last September.
I'm looking at purchasing an additional STR property, also in the same general area (returns have been so great, we would like to stick to the area). This will also be a combo investment / personal use home.
I have around ~10 - 15% of the estimated purchase price of the 2nd STR property available in liquid funds (towards a down payment) and a HELOC on Primary home which could cover the balance of down payment up to 20 or even 30 or 40% if necessary. It should cash flow positive with a cap rate around ~9% (conservative estimates, could be as high as 13 / 14%, not including principal paydown).
Anyway. I'm trying to figure out financing for this 2nd property. I've called a few lenders and have hit a few walls. Some are tight on DTI because they won't count income from our 1st STR until we have had it for 2 years (even though I have 5 years of rental income history from previous owner). Other lenders are saying that investment property products are only 15 year loans (which affect cash flow, so not preferable). I think this may be because I've been going through and looking at conventional loans and I need someone who specializes in commercial loans. Any tips? I've only ever gotten standard / conventional mortgages previously.
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@Nick Reuter yes, you can 100% include rental income with Fannie/Freddie types of loans. On a purchase, you can use rental income even if the property is vacant. On a refinance with Fannie/Freddie you would need a 12 month lease but on a purchase you don't have that requirement.
And the "due on sale clause"....I thought I had written an entire post on this but I guess not....maybe I'll do this a bit later...so I'll try to sum up a few things here:
The due on sale clause is not a mandatory thing. A lender has the choice TO call the note due or to NOT call the note due. To call a note due costs the lender money, it affects their own credit rating, and it can be a HUGE public relations issue as well. Could you imagine the outcry if a lender was calling notes due on people who were paying on time? Yikes! So just pay that loan on time and you will be fine.
However, let's say your lender DID lose their mind and still called the note due. The language in your note states that they must provide, AT MINIMUM, 30 days for you to change it back. So you still have an out.
But trust me, no lender is calling the note due if you are paying on time. They make TONS of money on these things. They ain't jeopardizing profits for something like this.
Hope all of that makes sense. Thanks!