Skip to content
×
Pro Members Get
Full Access!
Get off the sidelines and take action in real estate investing with BiggerPockets Pro. Our comprehensive suite of tools and resources minimize mistakes, support informed decisions, and propel you to success.
Advanced networking features
Market and Deal Finder tools
Property analysis calculators
Landlord Command Center
ANNUAL Save 54%
$32.50 /mo
$390 billed annualy
MONTHLY
$69 /mo
billed monthly
7 day free trial. Cancel anytime

Join Over 3 Million Real Estate Investors

Create a free BiggerPockets account to comment, participate, and connect with over 3 million real estate investors.
Use your real name
By signing up, you indicate that you agree to the BiggerPockets Terms & Conditions.
The community here is like my own little personal real estate army that I can depend upon to help me through ANY problems I come across.
Tax, SDIRAs & Cost Segregation
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

Updated about 3 years ago on . Most recent reply presented by

User Stats

84
Posts
107
Votes
Peter Eberhardt
  • Investor
  • San Diego, CA
107
Votes |
84
Posts

Seeking clarification on conflict with AB1482 text and C.A.R. NTT

Peter Eberhardt
  • Investor
  • San Diego, CA
Posted

Yes, I am seeking legal consul on this specific question. But as I am trying to get through to any attorney these days,  I also want to ask the BP community in parallel for any clarification. 

I want to serve notice to one of my units under the grounds of intent to owner occupy, and I want to make sure I am fully complying with AB1482. The California NTT form has a clause after owner occupant "no fault cause" that states  "Tennant has previously agreed that owner may unilaterally terminate the tenancy for such a reason (C.A.R form RCJC dated_____)". 

I have highlighted this statement below. 

The bill text in AB1482 states that the tenant has to agree to owners intent to occupy in writing if the lease was entered into on or after July 1, 2020. The unit lease was entered in August of 2019, therefore would imply that the tenant does not have to agree that the owner may unilaterally terminate the tenancy via form RCJC. I have highlighted this text in AB1482 (CIV 1946.2) below

If I am reading this correctly, it would seem that the statement I highlighted in the NTT form is not a universal statement that applies to all leases, only ones that are created and entered into on or after July 1st, 2020. Should I simply serve the RCJC form with the NTT form? Or serve the RCJC form first and if the tenant does not sign, that falls under a similar provision to terminate tenancy as the purposes outlined in subparagraph (E) of paragraph (1) of the bill text? 

Thoughts? 

Most Popular Reply

User Stats

6,075
Posts
7,016
Votes
Dan H.
  • Investor
  • Poway, CA
7,016
Votes |
6,075
Posts
Dan H.
  • Investor
  • Poway, CA
Replied
Originally posted by @Peter Eberhardt:

@Dan Heuschele Hey Dan, you are correct. But the notification of the right is not required for leases entered before July 1st 2020 according to AB1482 in regards to owner occupancy. That is the part I highlighted in the second photo.

 My apologies.  It appears some text with respect to the right to move in family that was in the earlier forms of this bill has been removed.  At one point AB1482 dictated the LL had to provide tenant notice to maintain the right to move family into the unit.  The bill even provided the wording to use.  This has been removed.  

I agree with your interpretation.  a lease signed prior to July 1, 2020 automatically maintains the right to move family into the unit.  For leases signed after that date, it must be indicated in the lease. 

Good luck

  • Dan H.
  • Loading replies...