Skip to content
×
PRO
Pro Members Get Full Access!
Get off the sidelines and take action in real estate investing with BiggerPockets Pro. Our comprehensive suite of tools and resources minimize mistakes, support informed decisions, and propel you to success.
Advanced networking features
Market and Deal Finder tools
Property analysis calculators
Landlord Command Center
$0
TODAY
$69.00/month when billed monthly.
$32.50/month when billed annually.
7 day free trial. Cancel anytime
Already a Pro Member? Sign in here

Join Over 3 Million Real Estate Investors

Create a free BiggerPockets account to comment, participate, and connect with over 3 million real estate investors.
Use your real name
By signing up, you indicate that you agree to the BiggerPockets Terms & Conditions.
The community here is like my own little personal real estate army that I can depend upon to help me through ANY problems I come across.
Tax, SDIRAs & Cost Segregation
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

Updated almost 13 years ago,

User Stats

273
Posts
43
Votes
Herm M.
Pro Member
  • Real Estate Investor
  • NorCal, CA
43
Votes |
273
Posts

Buying a property with a county lien recorded against buyer...

Herm M.
Pro Member
  • Real Estate Investor
  • NorCal, CA
Posted

Two buyers are on the purchase contract for a short sale.

The plan was to take title under solely buyer #1.

Because of the short sale approvals, title has to be taken by buyer #2 also.

Buyer #2 has a county lien recorded against him by a creditor.

Options:

a) Write an addendum and tell the two lenders that buyer #2 is being removed as a buyer. This means waiting X amount of time to revise the approvals.

b) Can the two buyers take title as "tenants in common" with buyer #1 taking 99% and buyer #2 taking 1%? This would mean that buyer #2 legally has a 1% ownership in the property. In effect, this means that the creditors can only come after a 1% share of the property, so they cannot touch buyer #1's share of 99%. Is this correct? Or can they go after buyer #1's share?

The lien is for 48k. The property value will be about 475k.

  • Herm M.
  • Loading replies...