Skip to content
×
PRO
Pro Members Get Full Access!
Get off the sidelines and take action in real estate investing with BiggerPockets Pro. Our comprehensive suite of tools and resources minimize mistakes, support informed decisions, and propel you to success.
Advanced networking features
Market and Deal Finder tools
Property analysis calculators
Landlord Command Center
$0
TODAY
$69.00/month when billed monthly.
$32.50/month when billed annually.
7 day free trial. Cancel anytime
Already a Pro Member? Sign in here

Join Over 3 Million Real Estate Investors

Create a free BiggerPockets account to comment, participate, and connect with over 3 million real estate investors.
Use your real name
By signing up, you indicate that you agree to the BiggerPockets Terms & Conditions.
The community here is like my own little personal real estate army that I can depend upon to help me through ANY problems I come across.
Creative Real Estate Financing
All Forum Categories
Followed Discussions
Followed Categories
Followed People
Followed Locations
Market News & Data
General Info
Real Estate Strategies
Landlording & Rental Properties
Real Estate Professionals
Financial, Tax, & Legal
Real Estate Classifieds
Reviews & Feedback

Updated almost 9 years ago,

User Stats

48
Posts
16
Votes
David Hayes
  • Rental Property Investor
  • Cincinnati, OH
16
Votes |
48
Posts

Thoughts on a potential subject-to deal? Is this even any good?

David Hayes
  • Rental Property Investor
  • Cincinnati, OH
Posted

I have what I consider an interesting scenario and I am curious to get some coaching/thoughts/feedback from fellow BP members:

I have a seller who wants to get out of her property (4 family in Cincinnati, Ohio), but ultimately wants more than it’s worth (in my opinion), but she has great equity so I offered her full price if she was willing to seller finance the remaining portion at 0% for up to 3 years so that I could easily refinance and get her paid off later. She agreed to this, but was concerned about transferring the property subject to existing mortgage because she went and asked the bank if she could do this – and they of course said no. I told her of course they would say no because it triggers the due on sale clause – but they don’t have to call the mortgage and my plan was to of course tell them I was taking ownership of the property and have full plans in place to continue to make it a performing asset and then would re-finance later to get them fully paid.

Here’s a couple more details of the property:

  • Purchase price = $300,000 (I think it would appraise around $280k, although comps are hard in the area because not many multifamily)
  • Downpayment from me = $10,000
  • Remaining mortgage = $150,000 (monthly payments of $1360, $800+/month principle)
  • Seller finance at 0% = $140,000 (balloon payment after 3yrs)
  • Monthly rent = $2800/month ($700/unit) Easy to rent at that price, opportunity to increase to $750-$800, maybe even $850

Now – you might jump on this and say that maybe this isn’t a good rental at all based on these numbers since it’s about half of the 2% rule. I would agree in general, which is why I was just trying to figure out a creative financing/acquisition solution. The property is in what I would define as an A neighborhood, in general it should have very low vacancy and potential for continued improved rents, maybe even appreciation (although I wouldn’t count on it).

Any coaching for further educating the seller on subject-to financing? I am definitely not trying to convince her to sell it to me, I’ve been very open about the risks and exact procedure that would happen.

Any other creative ideas or thoughts on this?

Loading replies...