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Updated almost 10 years ago on . Most recent reply

Is the DOS clause actually spelled out in the mortgage or just implied because it's not assumable?
The mortgage I'm looking at says nothing about a DOS clause but does say it does not have a "Demand Feature," which apparently allows the lender to call the loan due for any reason. It does however have a box checked that states that the loan is not assumable. So given that, is a DOS automatically implied as the penalty or trigger for doing a sub2 or similar deal?
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- Investor, Entrepreneur, Educator
- Springfield, MO
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Okay, I can't take it anymore....LOL
The language quoted is in the Deed of Trust or security agreement of the mortgage, it doesn't need to be in the note because it is not the terms of the note, it's the terms of the security agreement pledging the property as security for the loan. If the terms of the collateralized security is breached, the security is no longer pledged as agreed, the note is not properly secured and it may be called due and payable.
You enter into two agreements with a mortgage loan, one is the promise to pay as agreed, that is in the note, the other agreement is the security pledged under the conditions of making the note. Violate either one and the lender has recourse.
The due on sale is by federal statute, where it says the lender may not accelerate the note if it violates the federal statute is because 1., laws change but this one has not, and 2. there are certain exemptions, they just didn't point out the exemptions (which was wise because doing so would just give borrowers crazy ideas they hear from gurus and mess things up trying to get around the covenant not to give a beneficial interest away).
The due-on-sale clause or the acceleration or abandonment or alienation clause is contained in the standard deed of trust, or mortgage security agreement in all mortgages made by any insured lending institution. Most other lenders use the standard agreements too, if they have any sense..... :)