Is a Due on sale call possible on an inherited house?

Is a Due on sale call possible on an inherited house?

Dover, DE · Member since 2015 · 10 posts · 0 votes

So I went to see a lawyer today. I went to see him about forcing the cell of one of my deceased father's estate properties. But here's the back story first. 

Exactly three years ago my father purchased a house in Delaware. And the plan was for my family and I to move in this Delaware property with my father to help with his medical needs. The home was big enough to house my father and me as well as my three children. Three month after closing on the Delaware property my father passed away due to heart failure. My family and I (me & 3 children) currently reside in that property.  I have been keeping the mortgage payment current & even made some upgrades. (New windows all around, added a wood stove) 

The problem is with the other house in Pennsylvania.  My father had the type of insurance that when he died the Pennsylvania was paid off.  (I forget what it's called at the moment) But the problem is that my brother doesn't want to sale the Pennsylvania property.  He doesn't want to live in it either. (Ghost) He has had 2 cockamamie plans that has deterred us from being on one accord to sell the house. First, he wanted to turn the house into a daycare center. Now he has hooked up with some type of sovereignty movement teacher who is feeding him a bunch of crap about turning the house into a transitional home. In the mean while the taxes haven't been paid on that house since the last time I paid it. Which was 2 years ago. The taxes must be addressed by the end of this month. Or the city steps in. The house has been broken into and vandalized. And all the copper pipes taken out. When my brother and I was on the same Accord when when we wanted to sell the house. We were supposed to go half on the repairs and getting the house back up to code for the purpose of selling it. What happened was that I begin to make repairs in the house with my own money I replaced the copper piping that was left with pex pipe. I was the one keeping up on the maintenance and cutting the grass. Bottom line my brother didn't spend a dime on repairs and hasn't spent any time maintenancing the home and now has reneged on wanting to sell the property. 

I went to see a lawyer today about forcing the sell of that PA house. He tells me that forcing the sell of that house may in turn force the sell of the DE home also since it's apart of the estate. He goes on to say that the best thing to do would be to sign away all interest in the PA house & see if my brother would be interested in the same for the DE house Therefore leaving me solely the owner of the DE  house and him the owner of the PA house. He says that because the PA house appraised for 67k and the DE house is worth 160k. He said to look at it as if we were going to sell both properties. With it being A 100k loan on the DE property. I'd keep the 60k and the same for my brother and the 67k for the PA property. Also the lawyer said that I'd need to refinance the DE home in order to put it in my name or the bank might call in the loan.

Please tell me am I looking at this the wrong way. I see my brother Inheriting a free & clear house while I inherit a 100k loan. Tell me that my research on what can and can not trigger a due on sale clause is wrong. (I read that the bank could not do it to the hiers or any family member) Please tell me that I can buy my brother out of the De. at the date of death equity in the house.

Just so we are clear on what I wanted to do. My intentions was to fix up Dad's house and sell it and split the profits with my brother. My brother wants no part of the 100k loan that was taken out on the Delaware home. But I have 3years of equity in the home. I have paid roughly about 25k in mortgage & 15k on new windows in the DE home.

Please Advise.

Thanks in advance

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Joe SplitrockPro Member
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Rental Property Investor · Sioux Falls, SD · Member since 2015 · 9k+ posts · 18k+ votes
9y
Originally posted by @Jeff B.:

IN ALL CASES, get a present day appraisal on both properties as this establishes the new basis for each.  Any sales after this date will be cap-gains against the new appraised values.

I thought the basis for capital gains on inherited property is the value at the time of death? He died three years ago, then that would be the basis. On one property, he died three months after it was purchased, so likely the purchase price is the basis in that case. It is unlikely the value changed in three months.

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  • Investor · Princeton, TX · Member since 2014 · 1k+ posts · 1k+ votes
    9y

    I have heard this story before.  Has he already posted his side of the story on biggerpockets?

  • Dover, DE · Member since 2015 · 10 posts · 0 votes
    9y

    Yes I have posted before. Some things have changed. Because I have posted before does that mean I can get information?

  • Real Estate Professional · West Palm Beach, FL · Member since 2012 · 23k+ posts · 13k+ votes
    9y

    Seems like a pretty fair trade...the brother taking the Penn home and you taking the Deleware home....the equity is the same and that's what matters.  Otherwise, you may end up in a court battle.  As far as the due on sale, I'm pretty sure you're safe, you can look up Garr St Germain act.

  • Dover, DE · Member since 2015 · 10 posts · 0 votes
    9y

    Indeed Wayne Brooks  I have researched the Garr St Germain act. I see where it's says that it could not be triggered by the death off a parent. Not that I don't think that they would not try. But I believe I'd be safe also in that aspect. 

    But why can't I buy him out of the interest in the Delaware house. That's what he is talking about doing with the Philadelphia house the last time he spoke to our estate lawyer. 

    What I'd like to know is if I decided to buy him out of the Delaware home. Would I be buying him out on the equity at the time of my fathers death. Or is it about what the house is worth at the time of death or today. For that matter how do you buy out a sibling on an existing mortgage?

  • Real Estate Agent And Investor · Philadelphia, PA · Member since 2016 · 46 posts · 7 votes
    9y

    I'm not sure if I'm reading this correctly but in this situation I think it's all about presentation. If you tell your brother you can take his name off of the mortgage on the DE home so he wouldn't have to pay the mortgage and for you two to rent out the PA home and split the profit and expenses, I think you'll have a good shot of getting what you're after. The mortgage, which belongs to you after you pay it off. Plus the profit on renting out the PA home. Am I missing something ?

  • Real Estate Professional · West Palm Beach, FL · Member since 2012 · 23k+ posts · 13k+ votes
    9y

    Look at it realistically.....right Now you both own half of both houses. For either one to buy the other one out, you're buying their half at today's value.  No one would buying anyone "out of a mtg", as neither one of you responsible for the mtg.....it's just the equity in both houses that is the "value".  The math is the easy part, getting a resolution between quarreling siblings is the issue, without resorting to a court ordered sale, or division.  Could you get a credit for the money you've invested into repairs on the one house....probably.

  • Member since 2016 · 143 posts · 157 votes
    9y

    Sounds like an even trade. You other get about the same equity. You money into into a house that you have been living in and will reap the benefits of. Yes, you are looking at it in the wrong way. 

  • Lender · Greater LA/Orange County area, CA · Member since 2012 · 3k+ posts · 3k+ votes
    9y

    Ok, you are looking at this the wrong way.

    That's what you asked for, right?

  • Investor · Schaumburg, IL · Member since 2016 · 34 posts · 14 votes
    9y

    It is always possible.  Lenders only concern is that the payment is being made.   Miss a payment that becomes a whole different discussion.   If you have ample cash reserves you could be safe.  

  • Joe SplitrockPro Member
    Moderator
    Rental Property Investor · Sioux Falls, SD · Member since 2015 · 9k+ posts · 18k+ votes
    9y

    It sounds like both properties are currently in your fathers name legally. That is probably why your attorney is recommending you settle the estate. That means dealing with all assets including your home. You will need to come to an agreement with your brother or have your attorney force it in court. If you don't take action, the unpaid taxes will result in the PA home being sold at auction. This is going to get worse for you and your brother if you don't settle it. Please work with your attorney immediately before you lose it all.

  • Buy & Hold Owner · Redlands, CA · Member since 2015 · 5k+ posts · 2k+ votes
    9y

    IN ALL CASES, get a present day appraisal on both properties as this establishes the new basis for each.  Any sales after this date will be cap-gains against the new appraised values.

  • Joe SplitrockPro Member
    Moderator
    Rental Property Investor · Sioux Falls, SD · Member since 2015 · 9k+ posts · 18k+ votes
    9y
    Originally posted by @Jeff B.:

    IN ALL CASES, get a present day appraisal on both properties as this establishes the new basis for each.  Any sales after this date will be cap-gains against the new appraised values.

    I thought the basis for capital gains on inherited property is the value at the time of death? He died three years ago, then that would be the basis. On one property, he died three months after it was purchased, so likely the purchase price is the basis in that case. It is unlikely the value changed in three months.

  • Buy & Hold Owner · Redlands, CA · Member since 2015 · 5k+ posts · 2k+ votes
    9y
    Originally posted by @Joe Splitrock:
    Originally posted by @Jeff B.:

    IN ALL CASES, get a present day appraisal on both properties as this establishes the new basis for each.  Any sales after this date will be cap-gains against the new appraised values.

    I thought the basis for capital gains on inherited property is the value at the time of death? He died three years ago, then that would be the basis. On one property, he died three months after it was purchased, so likely the purchase price is the basis in that case. It is unlikely the value changed in three months.

     YOU ARE CORRECT - - date of death should be the date of the appraisal;  it's stinks that this occurs at such a stressful time. 

  • Real Estate Investor · Audubon, PA · Member since 2009 · 13k+ posts · 8k+ votes
    9y

    The heirs will have a basis set at the date of death appraised value. 

    Is there a will? Has it been probated? Who is supposed to act as the executor / personal representative? Are there any debts of the decedent that are supposed to be paid off from the assets of the estate? Was the decedent receiving Medicaid (not Medicare) benefits before he died?

    Those are just a few of the questions that have to be addressed before there is any equity to be split among heirs.

  • Attorney · Nashville, TN · Member since 2015 · 1k+ posts · 1k+ votes
    9y

    @Morris Hicks 

    I don't practice in DE, so please don’t take this as legal advice. But here are my thoughts:

    1. Please tell me am I looking at this the wrong way. I see my brother inheriting a free & clear house while I inherit a 100k loan.

    You are looking at this the wrong way. Assuming the attorney is using the correct value, you then are inheriting a 160K property that is subject to a $100k mortgage. Your brother is inheriting a property that is worth $67k minus taxes due and owing. While I don’t know all the facts, that’s probably an even trade.

    2. Tell me that my research on what can and cannot trigger a due on sale clause is wrong.

    You are probably correct that you can rely on the Garn-St. Germain Act to avoid triggering the due-on-sale clause. I cannot tell from your post as to where you and your brother are in terms of estate administration. But if the estate transfers the DE home to you directly, then I can’t see how the Bank can trigger the due-on-sale clause. But it probably does make sense for you (or your attorney) to talk to the mortgagee to make sure that there is a smooth “administrative” transition.

    3. Please tell me that I can buy my brother out of the DE Home.

    You probably can, but you will probably need to get the court’s permission. In PA, this process is often expensive for all sides due to the legal fees. The judges also tend to run out of patience---quickly---when dealing with “minor” family disputes. Now if your brother tries to compel the sale of the DE Home, you can make an offer to buy out his 50 percent interest. I don’t necessarily see a good basis for your brother and his counsel to object unless the appraised value is far too low.

    One quick note about the various expenses you paid. I don’t know what DE law exactly says on this issue, but in PA both you and your brother own---more or less---all property as tenants-in-common. As a practical matter, this would mean that your brother must pay for 50% of the expenses but you must also pay him 50% of the profits.

    So if you were litigating this in PA, here is basically what would happen. You can submit any legitimate expenses you paid for the PA Home to protect its value. You can also do so for the mortgage payments. It get’s trickier with the new windows since the fact that you spent $15k on the windows does not mean that the property value increased by $15k. On the other hand, your brother can demand that you pay 50 percent of whatever he incurred as an expense for the estate. Your brother can also probably demand that you pay 50 percent of the fair market rent for your DE Home for the time you lived there. After doing all that accounting, you will get a sense of what each of you paid for estate expenses, and how that amount should affect the distributions from the estate. 

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