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Updated about 10 years ago on . Most recent reply
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Auctioning Bank Doesn't Hold Clear Title?
Hi everyone,
I'm new. I searched the forums and haven't found a place where this has been discussed. I'm considering putting an offer in on a house through Auction.com. I've been doing a lot of homework to make sure I put in a good offer and limit my risk. Yesterday, I hit on a big issue that I need to get a handle on before I can bid. The auction closes Monday 12/29, so I only have a few days. I've already reached out to a RE attorney and title company, but won't likely hear back until it's too late given the holiday.
Auction.com offers a Special Warranty Deed (not a GWD). I understand the difference, and it sent me looking for more information on title. I found that the building originally contstructed in 1964 actually sits across parts of 4 parcels that were never subdivided. i.e. the property does not sit on an official parcel and have it's own address even though the address has been on the side of the building since 1964. The County has the owner as a private individual living a block away (who I haven't contacted). The Assessor's office shows that the bank has been paying property taxes and is the current owner (not the private party), but they're quick to say that they don't care who the owner is officially as long as the taxes are paid. So now I'm questioning how the bank can legitimately sell the property that shows per platted parcel boundaries as being non-conforming AND under private ownership. They've locked up the building, which suggests to me that they have some rights as I would simply cut the locks off if I was the private individual who owned the property a block away.
So my questions are:
1) clearly this puts a legal cloud over the property that diminishes its value. Should I stay away or use this to my advantage? And if the latter, how best should I take advantage of this situation?
2) how can a bank auction a property that has someone else shown on the county documents as the owner of record?
3) could I get title insurance for this issue? I don't want to lose all my money if I'm the successful bidder.
Thanks for any help the members of this community can lend. I'm hoping to get RE attorney feedback too, but am at a loss at this point.
The house is in Albuquerque, NM.
Most Popular Reply
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@Guy Gimenez has it with regards to the "legality" of the lot. Think about it this way, lot and parcel boundaries don't "actually" exist and at the same time you will always own a portion of them not the whole thing. What I mean is that all they are is someone's idea of the way in which property could/should be owned or sold.
So some time a 100+ years ago the land was "sectioned" that is divided into 1 square mile portions (640 acres). Maybe someone bought the whole thing or more likely it was then divided into smaller tracts often referred to as 1/4 sections (160 acres). Those smaller tracts were divided into smaller parcels which were ultimately divided into large lots that a developer may have created a subdivision on resulting in individual lots that are a manageable size for a person to buy and build a home.
At any of those points portions of those may have been sold as opposed to the whole thing. What if the land was divided in 1/4 sections but I only need/want 80 acres? Well I would buy the 80 acres with the legal description of "The north half of parcel 1 of tract 3" That gives me ownership of that 80 acres even though it's not the whole parcel. So like I mentioned above those lot lines were someone's idea of where the land should divide but don't necessarily have to transfer based on them.
When you get to individual city type lots, maybe someone back in the day wanted an extra large yard so they bought 1 1/2 lots. Now a house sits on "two" separate lots. Since that time minimum lot sizes may have changed and you can legally subdivide to create distinct lots that could be sold independently. but when you look back at record you'll still see those original lot descriptions since you always have to trace the description back from the original divisions up through today. The old mapping divisions never "go away" they just get "re-described" to reflect how you want them to be owned or sold today.
So could you have a home that doesn't sit on a legal subdivision? Yes. More likely scenario though is that it is 100% legally owned and that it is in the clear. If the legal description reflected in the foreclosure case is the lots as you described and the house sits on those lots as described (or portions thereof) then the foreclosure action is being completed on the correct property.