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Updated over 9 years ago,
Is the seller's bank entitled to more than remaining loan amount?
Hello,
I'm working on purchasing a commercial property, and I have a concern about the seller's situation.
Suppose Person 'B' (for buyer) is working with 'S' (seller) to purchase a commercial property 'P1'.
They agree on some price, which is higher than the remaining mortgage principal that is owed S' bank for P1.
It turns out, however, that S has other properties (say P2) with the same bank, which haven't been getting payments, and are on the brink of foreclosure.
S is now concerned that after the sale of P1 goes through, the bank will somehow be able to claim the extra, because of what is owed for P2. Is this a legitimate concern? If so, is there a way to avoid this? For example, adding a contingency on the purchase and sale that only the balance for P1 goes to the lender, else the sale doesn't go through?
I don't want to amend the purchase/sale with a lower price and work out the depreciation difference with the seller, because my understanding is that that's technically tax evasion.
Is there a good way around this?
Thanks!