Now, for anyone reading this, please remember that I have already stated that buyers should get appraisals and when using a lending institution, by law that is supposed to be 3rd party.  

Am I supposed to offer shares  or can it be a simple as min investment is X, investor gets x%/ $$ per month, and can exit after x time frame.I have my property analysis and "pitch deck".

They’re all cash deals (never financing) and in GA attorney represents buyer in cash deals.it get the closing attorney process but attornies at least from my knowledge are not suppose to JV with their clients. 

I don't suppose the seller has any OTHER properties he wants to get rid of?

I suppose you could help them out of the goodness of your heart but, you couldn't do it for compensation unless you were registered/licensed in many states (California is one of those states) and doing it without that paperwork could subject you to civil and criminal penalties if you ended up taking title to that property, or received compensation in exchange for helping them or made some promise like, you are there to help them.Maybe I'm misunderstanding your post but, if you don't understand what the general qualifications are for a loan mod, I'm confident you shouldn't be doing what you say you are doing, or trying to do.

Are you supposed to have enough cash flow to cover debt service to the bank and to the owner?

There are good and bad tenants no matter the neighborhood but I suppose (overall across the country on average) missed payments would be expected from those with less means. 

There is supposed to be a sequence of events such as a request from the borrower so a pre-signed deed in lieu may not hold up.

However, using the data points, I suppose that could be accurate.

Suppose, a customer has the option to purchase a job from me for either $5,000 or $10,000.