It's just a matter of transferring the management and receiving funds owed.

For that reason, I decided to start a self-directed ROTH IRA and transfer some funds from my existing Roth IRA into it.  

Make sure the contract will be transferable if you sell and/or the company goes out of business.

I agree with you on the w-2 to help fund REI, which is why if I were to go back, I would return to wherever is cheapest, (possibly online so I could continue with REI while "at" school) and works the best with my transfer credits. 

in Non disclosure states your tax records will show purchase price 10 bucks.. this is how they work in Mississippi.. so if its off market there is no way to know what someone paid for it.. the assessor assess it by local values for tax purposes.In CA in the good ole days it was common for developers to pay more stamp duty.. as you could back into sales price by figuring out the transfer tax as it was based on a % of the sales price.. so developers would pay more on purpose to give the illusion they paid more than they really did..  

As distasteful as it is to discuss, one of the best ways to transfer title from a tax standpoint is to wait for her to pass.  

The investor will deposit the $29000 into your credit card account, in which you will withdraw and pay it to our affiliate company branch and after you must have sent it via Moneygram, then the company will transfer your loan directly into the account.

So she is claiming that since the warranty deed has now been transferred into HER name, that there is no mortgage lien on the property only on the previous owner. 

If someone wants to transfer a property to their name, the estate will have to go through probate.  

Pretty much what I'm asking is:If the last transfer of title done on a property was with a warranty deed (lets say there were 10 transfers of title done before this one), does this ensure that all other transfers of ownership done before this particular transaction have been proven to be ligit?