If we're selling we often exclude it & the cost of the search so check your contract.

If it's been their primary residence for at least 2 of the previous 5 years, capital gains should be excluded from tax up to a gain of $250k If single, $500k if married.   

Then we have to exclude Physical Vacancy and Economic Vacancy to get to our Gross Operating Income, right? 

Even the standard definition of usury excludes hard money lending...

It's not a complicated formula - you deduct about 3.64% of the value of the structure (land is excluded) every year for 27.5 years.

A single person can exclude $250,000 of profit of the sale of a primary residence from income.  

I have searched the previously posted capital gain post and could not find a straight answer.I'm inquiring upon the 2 to 5 year (long-term capital gains) window that you have to be a primary homeowner to exclude or discount capital gain tax.- I understand that the capital gain tax is applied to the profit that you make from selling the house.- I understand that you have to live in the property for 2 out of a five year period.* Does this mean I would have to hold the property for at least five years?

To find out if this amount is accurate (25.80%) you would have to find out the expenses that the seller is paying on the property (exclude mortgage payments)  and subtract them from the amount of incoming rent (annually).

I will use these figures throughout the country but probably excluding San Francisco and New York since space is so vertical.  

Your lender should know how to exclude those from the arithmetic, and what documentation from you is required to justify it.