I’m mostly a podcast-listener, but I’m here on the forum to get advice.I have 2 rentals (GA & TX) that are on new 1-year leases.My wife and I are planning on buying a larger house in CO and we’re wondering if it’s common or even possible to sell the occupied properties.If so, is market value expected?

I was in the process of interviewing management companies(maybe overkill for an owner-occupied duplex, but with my work schedule and him being blind I feel he will be better taken care of in an emergency) and found one that was able to redraft a M2M contract that addressed some of these issues - guest limitations, specific language to common areas, etc.

Off market is harder to find one that'd fit a owner occupied loan(don't know how different Canada is).

It will teach you the fundamentals and create I'm sure many more questions for you :) FYI: When buying a property in Canada the only way to put less than 20% down is if the home is going to be owner-occupied.

The park is 50% occupied when we bought it and most of the vacant units need major rehab.

You could do an owner-occupied purchase and qualify for an FHA loan with only 3-5% down.If you need 20% down, consider partnering with someone like a family member or friend.

You should already know this answer.Beyond that, A) I never show an occupied house except in the rare case where the tenant is a fastidious neat-freak.

Hey MJThere are no national programs for a non-owner occupied Manufactured Home.

If you are occupying I’m not sure management fees will apply.

I’ve begun to grow skeptical of my accountant’s advice (some of her suggestions completely contradict lots of advice I’ve read on this forum), and I was hoping to get someone else’s perspective.Background: I purchased a duplex in 2019, rented out one unit and occupied another side.Starting from 01/01/2020 I no longer lived there but continued to do repairs as the unit was not in great shape when I bought it.