A rental property takes a bigger hit on pricing compared to a owner occupied or second home2.

The price was good, the rents at purchase were below market, and it was fully occupied. 

As I stated above, I’m a college student with a part-time job that doesn’t pay near enough for a 20% down-payment on ANYTHING, so an owner-occupied prop. with a 0-3.5% DP (such as a house-hack) makes sense.

My goal as of right now is to upgrade to a bigger property 3 bedrooms and up but it must be a property where I can get creative in two years which is the time a VA loan require us to occupy a property.

Hey everyone, I purchased a duplex using an FHA loan and as with FHA loans I am required to occupy one of the units for a year.

I would only want to put them in a hard to backfill space that other tenants passed on that way they occupy a space I had a hard time filling anyways and if they make it I get extra income I would not have otherwise had.A landlord would not want IN PERPETUITY in a lease at least for a payment they pay.

Investors are more interested with tenant-occupied properties.

I used a VA loan, 0 down and rented out the third bedroom while I occupied.

Not that it was needed… multiple inspections since show normal settlement and nothing that indicates a sinkhole.I would like to sell the property for fair market value, however I understand that with the “sinkhole” history the house will sell cash only, 15-20% under market value, since owner/occupiers will have challenges getting insurance and financing.Any ideas how to remove this blemish?

For context, it's a $700-800k 2-unit MF, which I'm indifferent about in terms of going the owner-occupied vs pure investment route.