This is not a once size fits all question IMO.

I did a study on this and surveyed 40 investors in CO.

About 4 or 5 years ago I had some students who were in violation of this policy.

If this is how it works, do I ever go through the title company like I would in a normal wholesale transaction?

Now, this was all done with someone's private money so is it private money or hard money?

There is plenty of good turnkey properties on the MLS for sale that would cashflow using the 1% rule and you wont have to overpay for them on a "promise".

This was not per plan. 

Purchase price: $150,000 Cash invested: $1,500 A month ago my banker (who's is also also an agent) from my home town where I have other properties called me and asked if I wanted to buy this house.

There is really no data on this so most of the numbers are just proposed.

Cash invested: $80,000 Acquired this property Sub-to as a quick flip with minimal repairs required.