You need to ask what the current occupancy, current noi, current expenses and ask for whether or not they have a predetermined cap rate.

When you have 5-10 years lease with predetermined rent bumps, how would the "potential rent" be relevant?

This is referred to as an option to purchase.A potential buyer can enter into a contract with the homeowner whereby the buyer has the right to purchase the property up until the predetermined option date at a predetermined price.  

Also, each payday, a predetermined amount of money gets transferred into savings.  

You don't own an asset, your return is predetermined, and no third party involvement.  

The more it sells for the more they make.The only person involved in the transaction of any property that requires a loan that isn’t a salesman and their payment isn’t contingent on a pre-determined outcome is an appraiser.That’s why appraisers are blamed for everything when a salesman doesn’t make a sale.

A fractional home owner allows persons access to the home at predetermined times while still retaining partial ownership over the home, as opposed to a time share where individuals own units of time.

A fee, is defined in many ways depending on the context, but inherently the fee is predetermined (fixed) and based on costs and some measure for margin or profit.

ARVs, like Appraisals and BPOs, are an educated opinion of value based on factual data and assumptions.CAP Rate is part of the Income Approach Valuation model and uses the Net Operating Income of the property to determine what an Investor would be willing to pay for it (or valuate it) based on their Risk Assessment and pre-determined return on their Capital.

With all due respect, it is presumptuous to make predeterminations on the analytics of my portfolio without having familiarity with the portfolio, the numbers, and the specific deals comprising the portfolio.