No, the new title holder has no responsibility for the note, period.........unless of course they Wish to actually assume the note, with the mortgagee's permission.  

I’ve tried myself before and failed, so I can keep you posted if he gets the permissions. 

I read online that the probate court has to approve all real estate transactions “Most probates in California are handled under the state’s Independent Administration of Estates Act, which lets the executor take care of most matters without having to get permission from the probate court.

I called the mortgage company to ask them if they needed anything or for their permission, and her exact words were "we don't get involved in that at all." 

If an investor brings a property to me, asking me to show the property and/or to represent them in the transaction, I will NOT present it to anyone else, unless the person who brought it decides against it AND gives me his permission to present it to others.  

And if the property is really worth it, I will call (with permission) on a regular basis until the owner accepts to sell.

Do I need some kind of special permission from the lender? 

This shall serve as written permission from the landlord that the said agreement shall become a month-to-month agreement, beginning at the expiration of the current lease and continuing indefinitely, until tenant provides 20 (Twenty) day written notice to vacate to the landlord."

I do not care what their reason is there are no acceptable excuses for borrowing my money without permission. 

If you have his permission to shop the deal, you should get the split in writing before you do.