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22 April 2023 | 46 replies
Whether or not having REPS and materially participating in your rental portfolio would then allow you to include losses from a K1 by grouping all your investment activities together for tax treatment (ie can you include the K1 losses even though you are not materially participating in that specific deal if you do otherwise materially participate in your rental portfolio?)
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14 July 2021 | 2 replies
NOTE: Direct Loan to S-corp does not prevent the CG treatment of excess distribution over stock basis.
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22 December 2022 | 3 replies
Project starts with a gutted basement, then gets the full treatment: framed walls, electrical, plumbing, HVAC, Insulation, drywall & taper, flooring, interior doors, baseboards & window/door casings, kitchen install, bathroom, tiles., appliances, etc.Also, if it had allowances for employees, Overhead, mark up, management fees etc, etc.Thanks
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1 June 2019 | 5 replies
@Aaron MoayedI'm not sure what you're asking, but I don't think redundant is the right word...A state law would be redundant if a federal law was/is passed that prescribes the exact same treatment.If there's no exact same federal law, a state law is not redundant for prescribing state treatment...
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25 January 2016 | 5 replies
The IRS tends to view house flipping as no different than assembling widgets and it is taxed the exact same way.Capital Gains treatment is available only for property held for investment or in the course of business (such as a rental or sometimes undeveloped land).That said, from a tax standpoint, you can and should report the flipping activity and your commission activity separately from your W-2 income.
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16 April 2014 | 7 replies
Those structured will qualify for 1031 Exchange treatment as the TIC is considered a direct interest in real estate and the DST is a disregarded entity and is also considered an acquisition of real estate.
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18 June 2015 | 54 replies
There are a lot of issues and no one set answer for every situation.I'll make a quick pass at a few of the key points for you:A self directed IRA or 401K is no different from any other IRA or 401k when it comes to treatment of inheritances.A spousal inheritor will have different tax treatment from a non-spousal inheritor.A specifically named, non-spousal beneficiary will be able to use their age to determine the amount of distributions that need to be taken from the account each year.
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29 April 2014 | 20 replies
Unless stains are removed through a special treatment, the stain will become permanent.
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11 October 2014 | 2 replies
I've never heard of any special tax treatment based on who originate a loan nor is that proper accounting under generally accepted accounting principles.
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27 July 2014 | 10 replies
First, if your client is asking about tax treatments, your response should be that he should pose the question to his own tax professional.