I’ve never done a 1031 before and every Google search along the lines of “retroactive 1031 exchange” is about reversing the sale of a house you just bought, via a 1031.I’m talking about buying a house weeks before your old rental sells, and somehow having that whole transaction fit under one 1031 exchange.Last thing I would want to do is pay pay the new property’s downpayment in cash, and then turn around and find out it doesn’t qualify for a 1031 since I bought it before selling the first house, and then also having to go buy another house with the 1031 funds, and never recoup my own cash I used on the new rental.Hope that makes sense, I will be happy to clarify if it doesn’t.

He mentioned to me that I should liquidate most of my assets so that I could qualify for loans such as FHA and similar types since those are more for lower income earners.

I don't plan on leveraging my dad at this point since we wont qualify for an fha loan if he is on the contract, so I heard.

The 1031 exchange is only for investment property to investment property.In your mom's case, she probably qualifies for the primary residence exemption and the first $250K of profit in her sale would be tax free. 

Since you've had a recent job change, you'll have a hard time qualifying for a mortgage. 

As far as the lender goes, if I'm buying properties that qualify for conventional loans does it really make a difference if I build up a relationship with a specific bank vs just shopping around each time I buy a new property?

I got qualified for about $650,000 so I am trying to evaluate all my options.

But the other question is why  wouldn’t form 8582 or “contemporaneous record” qualify as a record of passive loss at state level?

The IRS also says “you can choose to treat any debt secured by your qualified home as not secured by the home.”So... this leads to interest tracing rules which are not complicated but it begs more questions-What's the land for?

We can't afford or not qualified to live where we are living.