Regardless, I would do whatever you can to fulfill the requirements honestly, cause 1. its the right thing to do and, 2. mortgage fraud is no joke.  

Once loan's requirement is fulfilled, I buy another property and "rinse and repeat.

So you are technically getting their "last month" in advance of the last month (unless they don't fulfill their 12 month lease).

But I think I miss judged the reason of the contract. it is to make payments to the seller as though they are the lender of the property and I assume ownership as long as the contract is fulfilled  I am am taking all advice from anyone who has been in my shoes!

Maybe I'm not as quick on the pick up as everyone here, but with your W2 income and rental income you should fall squarely in the 24% tax bracket [$178,150 to $340,100 for MFJ] At best with your wife fulfilling Real Estate Professional status and you getting into asset classes with large paper losses you'll move down to the 22% bracket [$83,550 to $178,150 MFJ] but even if you had a MAGI of $180k, you'd need over $100k of paper losses to push you down to the 12% bracket. 

Tenants in both sides but one had a lease expiring within 60 days and all I had to provide to lender was the notice of non renewal to that tenant from seller as “proof” I would be able to fulfill the 60 day owner occupancy requirement.

When the title company ran the search, the seller and the previous owner never filled the deed stating that the last land contract had been fulfilled.

What percentage of signed leases fulfill their full term?

I agree with @Natalie SchanneAll that matters is you fulfill your contractual obligations laid out in the docs you signed. 

Money will magnify who you are, and for her, it sounds like she's fulfilling something, and that's awesome!