I want to say Ira and 401 accounts can be moved somehow into an investment instrument that can be used to purchase real estate.

And if you're in a non-cashflowing market, you'll have to make assumptions about the appreciation.)Anyways, I'm a cashflow investor at the moment so I like knowing how to compare my investments with other instruments as well as knowing what type of returns I might want to offer to future investors, if I go that route.Hope it helps.

Setting up a security instrument and note is not a DIY project.  

BP has been incredibly helpful and instrumental in my and my partner's learning process!

The due on sale clause simply gives the lender the RIGHT to call the loan due upon transfer of title.The exceptions to calling the loan due in the Garn St Germain Act are below....See http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/12/1701j-3(d)Exemption of specified transfers or dispositions With respect to a real property loan secured by a lien on residential real property containing less than five dwelling units, including a lien on the stock allocated to a dwelling unit in a cooperative housing corporation, or on a residential manufactured home, a lender may not exercise its option pursuant to a due-on-sale clause upon—(1) the creation of a lien or other encumbrance subordinate to the lender’s security instrument which does not relate to a transfer of rights of occupancy in the property;(2) the creation of a purchase money security interest for household appliances;(3) a transfer by devise, descent, or operation of law on the death of a joint tenant or tenant by the entirety;(4) the granting of a leasehold interest of three years or less not containing an option to purchase;(5) a transfer to a relative resulting from the death of a borrower;(6) a transfer where the spouse or children of the borrower become an owner of the property;(7) a transfer resulting from a decree of a dissolution of marriage, legal separation agreement, or from an incidental property settlement agreement, by which the spouse of the borrower becomes an owner of the property;(8) a transfer into an inter vivos trust in which the borrower is and remains a beneficiary and which does not relate to a transfer of rights of occupancy in the property; or(9) any other transfer or disposition described in regulations prescribed by the FederalHome Loan Bank Board.

CODE:(1) the term “due-on-sale clause” means a contract provision which authorizes a lender, AT ITS OPTION, to declare due and payable sums secured by the lender’s security instrument if all or any part of the property, or an interest therein, securing the real property loan is sold or transferred without the lender’s prior written consent; Please note: "AT ITS OPTION"

What do I show to the new 1st lender prior to-or at closing to show what skin I have in the game (instrument such as a letter, a promissory note).

- giving me a bit of an edge.To scale it up, you'd have to find some debt instruments that have a secondary market, are liquid, and are far larger than $25 a pop.

The seller will have a forecloseable instrument (agreement for deed, wrap, etc).Originally posted by Jon Holdman:If I were the private lender in this scenario and you did this I would foreclose so fast it would make your head spin.

The owner is allowed to invest the excess deferred cash payment (liquid or demand instruments) to make further passive income.