The most common interpretation of the CAR RPA is that the buyer's EMD is protected by the relevant contingencies until said contingencies are lifted by them signing specific paperwork to that effect.

Your state's case law might interpret your contract settlement date as an "estimated" date, not a hard requirement.  

Lessor agrees to give Lessee 30 days written notice of the termination of lease due to the sale of the premises and Lessee shall vacate the premises at the expiration of the 30 day notice period.My questions is whether or not the term "Lessor" could be also be interpreted legally as the new Lessor so that if I was successful in the purchase of the property that I could give one of the tenants a 30 day notice so that I could move-in?

High end property/seller gets a high end look from me (or my interpretation lol).

I'm not saying that that necessarily is his motivation, but unless he can give you a valid reason that is based in tax law rather than liability, I would ignore his advice on this one.As a side note, I'll give you my interpretation of your initial question; if you intend to quit claim your property right from the start and never inform your bank about it (either before the initial loan, or before or after the quit claim) you are at a minimum being dishonest and violating ethical norms, although I'm not certain that you'd be breaching the contract.

The Seller is the person who needs to provide interpreters.  

Is there some industry standard or is it open to interpretation.

Also a recent court case has been  interpreted to mean you cannot evict a tenant for non payment of water.

Read it right...interpreted it wrong.  

How do I interpret this information in a meaningful way?